Read Order: AMIT BANSAL & ANR v. THE CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATON
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, January 2, 2024: Considering the fact that the accused-petitioners had been facing trial for more than 32 years and the dispute had already been settled between the Bank and the petitioners, the Delhi High Court has quashed the proceeding emanating from a case registered under sections 420/468/477A/120B IPC.
The petitioner had approached the Bench of Justice Sudhir Kumar Jain by filing a petition under section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 for quashing of proceedings qua the petitioners.
Briefly stated, the facts of the present case were that the CBI registered the RCs on the basis of complaint made by the Regional Manager, Punjab & Sind Bank, New Delhi as well as the Chief Vigilance Officer, Punjab & Sind Bank, Head Office, New Delhi. After conclusion of the investigation, a common charge-sheet was filed in 1988 wherein 13 persons were implicated including the petitioners and their father namely Satya Pal Bansal (since deceased) who was the holder of Current Account in the name of M/s Sanjay Traders in Punjab & Sind Bank (Bank).
It was stated that the various transactions between the accused firms and persons caused a loss of approximately Rs 32 lakh to the Bank. The allegation against the petitioner no.2/Vikas Bansal was that a sum of Rs 3,10,000 was deposited in his account by his father. The allegation against the petitioner no.1/Amit Bansal was that a sum of Rs 1,50,000 was deposited in his account by his father.
The ACMM framed charges for the offences against all accused including the petitioners. Being aggrieved by this order, the petitioners filed revision petitions which were dismissed. Thereafter, the petitioners filed a petition before this Court seeking quashing of the order on charge. Keeping in view the settlement between the Bank and M/s Sanjay Traders, the High Court had quashed the charges framed against the petitioners.
Being aggrieved, the respondent/CBI filed a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court and consequent Criminal Appeal which was allowed and the order passed by the High Court was set aside. Thereafter, petitioners’ Review Petition (Crl.) & Curative Petition were dismissed by the Supreme Court.
It was the petitioners’ case that the RCs were registered more than 35 years ago and the petitioners had been facing the trial since last more than 32 years which caused great mental agony and harassment to the petitioner and had taken a severe toll on their life and career.
It was submitted that the dispute between the petitioners and the Bank was primarily of a civil nature and the same had been settled between them by way of compromise and the petitioners had paid the entire settled amount of Rs 17 lakhs to the Bank which was duly acknowledged.
Considering the fact that the RCs were registered in the years 1986-87 and petitioners have been facing the trial since last more than 32 years, the Bench said, “The right to speedy trial is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India which cannot be denied to an accused person.”
The Bench highlighted the fact that the dispute subject matter of the present RCs, pertaining to the petitioners, being civil in nature, had already been settled between the Bank and the petitioners and the Bank had received the entire settled amount.
“No useful purpose shall be served if the proceedings arising out of the present RCs are allowed to be continued and it would be an exercise in futility”, the Bench held while allowing the petition and quashing the RCs along with all consequential proceedings.
Read Order: DR. ANBUMANI RAMADOSS v. CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, January 2, 2024: The Delhi High Court has allowed the former Union Health Minister Anbumani Ramadoss to appear virtually through video-conferencing before the Trial Court in relation to a case of corruption pertaining to medical college admissions.
The petition under Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 had been filed on behalf of petitioner, assailing the order passed by the Special Judge (PC Act) in a case registered under Sections 120B/420/465/468/471 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) and Section 13(2) read with Section 13(1)(d) of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
The facts, leading to the registration of present RC by the CBI, were that an information was received that some officials of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, New Delhi had entered into a criminal conspiracy with the Chairman of Rohilkhand Medical College, Uttar Pradesh. In pursuance of this conspiracy, the officials of Ministry had granted renewal of permission for admission of 100 MBBS students in the medical college.
It was discovered by the CBI that the medical college had been granted permission by Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India for admission of its first & second batches of MBBS students, for the sessions 2006-07 & 2007-08. However, in the year 2008-09, Medical Council of India had found that the college was not meeting the prescribed norms and had shortage of infrastructure faculty. Consequently, on 04.09.2008, the executive committee of the Council communicated to the Central Government to not renew the permission for admission of third batch of students in the college and the same was communicated to the college.
During this time, the said medical college had approached the Apex Court acknowledging that there were deficiencies but it had requested that the Government and the Council may consider renewal for a reduced intake of students. The Council opined that the available facilities of the medical college were not sufficient even for a reduced number of MBBS admissions. However, the Ministry accorded renewal of permission for admission of third batch of 100 MBBS students for years 2008-09 to the college.
It was alleged that the Ministry had deputed a Central Team on their own with mala fide intention. Another inspection was conducted by Medical Council after a lapse of only five days and it was found that the shortage of teaching staff was 65.51%. Thus, allegedly, the officers of Ministry had connived with Shri Keshav Kumar Agarwal, Chairman, of the medical college and others, with ulterior motive in granting permission for the period 2008-09. Accordingly, the RC was registered by the CBI.
The accused involved in this case were Dr. K.K. Agarwal, Chairman of Rohilkhand Education Trust, Bareilly (A-1), Dr K.Y.S.Rao, Deputy Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (A-2), Dr. Ambumani Ramadoss, the then Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare (A-3), Dr. Vindu Amitabh (A-4) and Dr. S.K. Rasania (A-5).
The challenge in this petition was to the order dated 25.04.2022 passed by the Trial Court, wherein personal appearance of the Former health minister had been exempted subject to a cost of Rs 2,500.
It was the petitioner’s case that the Trial Court had erred in passing the impugned order whereby the application seeking exemption from personal appearance and permission to join through video conferencing was dismissed in a mechanical manner and without any application of judicial mind. The petitioner prayed that he be permitted to appear virtually, due to his permanent residence being in Tamil Nadu, before the Trial Court without any conditions, and the impugned order be set aside.
Refereeing to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Bench opined that the scheme of Cr.P.C., through Section 273, provides that as a general rule, all evidence presented during a trial must be taken in the presence of the accused. However, the Cr.P.C. also provides exceptions to this general rule, by virtue of Sections 205 and 317, which contain the law regarding exempting an accused from personal appearance.
Placing reliance upon Bhaskar Industries Ltd. v. Bhiwani Denim & Apparels Ltd and Puneet Dalmia v. CBI, the Bench opined that while exercising the discretion to exempt an accused from personal attendance, some important factors such as the nature of the allegations, the conduct of accused, his place of residence, the distance to be travelled for the purpose of making personal appearance before the Court, the physical condition of accused, the necessity of making a personal appearance, etc., are to be considered.The law also mandates imposing certain conditions while granting exemption to an accused.
Noting the fact that the petitioner is a permanent resident of Chennai, Tamil Nadu, whose family members including parents, children and grand-children reside in Tamil Nadu, the Bench also observed that the case at hand pertains to the year 2010, however, the charges have not yet been framed in this case and the trial has yet not commenced.
The Court was also conscious of the fact that petitioner herein had not prayed for exemption from his personal appearance before the Trial Court, rather had only sought exemption from his 'physical' appearance before the Court.
“Considering the aforesaid facts and circumstances, this Court is of the opinion that allowing the petitioner to appear before the learned Trial Court through virtual mode will not compromise the integrity or fairness of the trial”, the Bench held.
Thus, in view of the forgoing discussion, the Bench set aside the impugned order dated 25.04.2022 and passed certain directions as under:
- The petitioner shall remain present on every date of hearing virtually i.e. through Video-Conferencing before the Trial Court and counsel on behalf of petitioner will remain present physically before the Trial Court.
- Only because the petitioner is appearing through Video- Conferencing, he will not dispute his identity during cross- examination, etc., or at any other stage of trial since he himself is seeking exemption from personal appearance in physical form, and requests that he be allowed to appear through Video- Conferencing.
- The petitioner will not seek unnecessary adjournments before the Trial Court.
- In case the Trial Court will be of the opinion that the physical presence of petitioner is essential, for reasons to be recorded in writing, such an order regarding the dates on which he will be required to appear in person before the Trial Court will be passed in presence of the learned counsel for petitioner or petitioner himself or anyone present on his behalf, at least ten days prior to such date fixed for his appearance before the Court.
Read Order: DARSHAN HARISH JOSHI & Ors. v. STATE (NCT OF DELHI)
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 29, 2023: The bail petitions of three accused persons have been rejected by the Delhi High Court as they took money in the name of Enforcement Directorate on the pretext of getting the complainants exonerated from a fictitious case which was never registered, and fake summons allegedly issued by ED were also issued by them in furtherance of their common intention.
The accused-applicants had approached the single-judge Bench of Justice Swarna Kanta Sharma by preferring application under Section 439 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Cr.P.C.) seeking grant of regular bail in a registered under Sections 170/389/387/465/ 471/120B/34 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 ('IPC').
The present FIR was registered on the complaint of Sh. Vipul Kaushik, which he had filed on behalf of Sh. Hardev Singh SB, who is the Industrial Unit President of Nippon Paint India Ltd. In the complaint, it was alleged that on 08.11.2022, he had received two separate notices of Enforcement Directorate on his Whatsapp, one for his appearance and another for his colleague Kumar Hakim’s appearance. Hardev Singh had further alleged that before receiving the said notice, one Akhilesh Mishra (supplier of solvents on commission basis in Nippon Paint India) had called Kumar Hakim and told him that he could help him to get rid of that trouble with the help of his contacts in Ministries.
Thereafter, Kumar Hakim met Akhilesh Mishra, who demanded Rs. 2-3 crores to settle the matter. Hardev Singh had informed Enforcement Directorate, Delhi about the said notices and from the office of Enforcement Directorate, Hardev Singh came to know that the said notices were fake. Accordingly, to catch the culprits red-handed, Hardev Singh kept his conversation going on with Akhilesh Mishra and Darshan Harish Joshi to settle the matter.
Hardev Singh arranged flight tickets of Akhilesh Mishra and Darshan Harish Joshi from Mumbai to Delhi and also booked a room in Hotel The Ashok in Delhi. Consequently, the Enforcement Directorate informed the Crime Branch, Delhi that some individuals were attempting to extort money from a person, who lives in Mumbai, under the guise of being Enforcement Directorate officials. Thereafter, a raid was conducted and accused persons Akhilesh Mishra, Darshan Harish Joshi, Vinod Kumar Patel, Dharmender Kumar Giri and Naresh Mahto were arrested. During the investigation, call recordings were found in the mobile phone of Akhilesh Mishra, which revealed the active participation of Darshan Harish Joshi in this conspiracy.
After concluding investigation, charge-sheet was filed and the FSL report/result regarding the CCTV footage and mobile phones of the accused persons was still awaited.
Justice Sharma took note of the fact that there were specific allegations against the accused persons of impersonating as officer of Enforcement Directorate and extortion of money by extending threats of implication in a false case to the complainants.
After a perusal of record and chargesheet, the Bench noticed that there were conversations between the applicant Darshan Harish Joshi and co-accused Akhilesh Mishra which revealed the active participation of all applicants in the entire conspiracy.
The applicants had also introduced the fake officer of ED to the complainant who had threatened him to pay the amount. The applicants had also asked the complainant to settle the matter by paying Rs.15-20 crores to them, and had threatened him with dire consequences in case of failure to make the payment. The police had arrested the applicant from the spot i.e. hotel in question, while negotiating with the complainant Vipul Kaushik. CCTV footage also revealed that the accused were present in the hotel in question at the time of commission of alleged offence.
The case in question was of criminal conspiracy hatched by all the accused persons in furtherance of their common intention to extort money from Hardev Singh and Kumar Hakim, who were President and Director of Nippon Paints India-Mumbai respectively.
“This Court is of the opinion that the allegations against the accused persons are serious and grave in nature. Furthermore, since the money was being taken in the name of Enforcement Directorate on pretext of getting them exonerated from fictitious case which was never registered, and fake summons allegedly issued by ED were also prepared and issued by the accused persons in furtherance of their common intention, this Court finds no ground for grant of bail, at this stage, as the trial is yet to commence”, the Bench held while dismissing the bail pleas.
Read Order: ACHAL NATH & ANR v. ATUL NATH
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 29, 2023: The Delhi High Court has clarified that there is no complete bar on exercise of jurisdiction under Section 482 CrPC by the High Court in relation to an interlocutory order.
The Single-Judge Bench of Justice Vikas Mahajan was considering a petition filed under Section 482 CrPC against the impugned order passed by the Additional Sessions Judge whereby the criminal revision filed by the present petitioners was dismissed as devoid of merits.
The petitioners had filed the criminal revision against the order passed by the Metropolitan Magistrate whereby the application filed by the respondent seeking limited investigation under Section 202 CrPC for the purpose of procuring some original documents, stated to be in the exclusive possession of the present petitioners/accused, was allowed. The SHO concerned was also directed to appoint an I.O who may seize the documents mentioned in the application and send them to the FSL for obtaining an opinion.
The brief facts of the case were that the present petitioners, as well as, the respondent are real brothers who are litigating against each other. The relationship between the petitioners and the respondent soured over a larger company dispute initiated by the respondent over the majority shareholding of the petitioners in two companies' i.e, Ashok Manufacturing Limited ('AMC’) and Ashok Brothers Impex Pvt. Limited (‘ABI’).
The case of the petitioners was that the respondent filed a false case with forged and fabricated company documents before the Company Law Board concerning issue of shareholding in AMC and ABI, which matter is now sub-judice before the NCLT.
The petitioners filed a criminal complaint before Police Station Model Town against the respondent, his son and another accused alleging conspiracy on their part to impersonate themselves as the directors of AMC and falsely showing control over the company by using false, fabricated documents and counterfeit seals of AMC.
The respondent filed a complaint under Section 200 CrPC read with Section 156(3) CrPC against the petitioners, before the Trial Court, alleging that the petitioners had forged the signatures of their mother in order to usurp majority shareholding and control of the said companies.
The application of the respondent filed under Section 156(3) CrPC along with his complaint under Section 200 CrPC was dismissed by the Trial Court. Thereafter, when the Court of Session dismissed the criminal revision filed by the respondent, the respondent again agitated the matter before this Court by filing a writ petition. Via an agreement, the respondent (petitioner therein) had agreed that he shall lead pre-summoning evidence before the Trial Court and if the necessity arises, the respondent may request the learned Trial Court to invoke its power under Section 202 CrPC to get further investigation done.
One of the main arguments from the petitioner’s side was that the impugned directions could not have been given to the SHO to have the documents seized from the petitioners and to send them to the FSL as it is settled law that the accused cannot be involved in an inquiry under Section 202 CrPC.
The short question which had to be decided by way of this judgment was with regard to the maintainability of the present petition filed under Section 482 CrPC against the orders, and challenging the proceedings, arising out of an inquiry under Section 202 CrPC .
Referring to K.K. Patel vs. State of Gujarat & Amar Nath vs. State of Haryana,the Bench opined that the order of the Metropolitan Magistrate dated 26.04.2023 is an interlocutory order, inasmuch as, it does not decide or touch upon the important rights or liabilities of the parties nor the said order directing the SHO to seize the documents, if reversed, will conclude the proceedings under Section 202 CrPC. At best, it is a step in aid of the proceeding under Section 202 CrPC.
Considering this position, the Bench opined that the revisional court ought not to have entertained the revision of the petitioners in view of the specific bar contained in sub-section (2) of Section 397 CrPC.
The next issue before the Bench was whether the present petition under Section 482 CrPC, which impugned the order/proceeding arising out of an interlocutory order, was maintainable notwithstanding that the revisional court entertained and dismissed the criminal revision filed by the petitioners on merits.
To answer this question, the Bench referred to Madhu Limaye vs. State of Maharashtra; Girish Kumar Suneja vs. CBI & Hoogly Mills Company Ltd. vs. State of West Bengal and said, “Clearly, from a perusal of the above noted judgments, it manifests that there is no complete bar on exercise of jurisdiction under Section 482 CrPC by the High Court in relation to an interlocutory order. However, the power under Section 482 CrPC against an interlocutory order has to be exercised sparingly in rarest of rare cases, where criminal proceedings has been initiated illegally, vexatiously or without jurisdiction or where the impugned order clearly brings about a situation which is an abuse of the process of the Court or for the purpose of securing the ends of justice.”
The Bench observed that in order to find answer to the moot question, it would be necessary for this court to embark upon an inquiry as to whether the present case comes within the sweep of aforesaid parameters so as to warrant exercise of jurisdiction under Section 482 CrPC.
This, as per the Bench, would require touching upon the merits of the case and examination of the following issues- whether the learned Metropolitan Magistrate by directing the SHO to seize the documents from the possession of the accused/petitioners in an inquiry under Section 202 CrPC has exceeded his jurisdiction; whether the impugned order has brought about a situation which is an abuse of the process of the Court, and whether this Court needs to interfere with the impugned order of the revisional court, as well as, the order dated 26.04.2023 of the learned Metropolitan Magistrate, to secure the ends of justice.
The Bench further observed that it would be appropriate to hear the parties on the above issues. Thus, the Bench ordered that notice be issued to the respondent by all permissible modes, returnable on the next date.
Keeping in view the above detailed discussion and regard being had to the fact that matter required consideration and was being listed for final hearing, the Bench held that the operation of the impugned order, as well as, the order of the Metropolitan Magistrate, would be stayed till the next date.
Read Order: RITURAJ KUMAR v. STATE OF NCT OF DELHI
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 29, 2023: In a case were the complainant made specific allegations of forced sexual assault of aggravated nature¸ the Delhi High Court has refused to grant bail to the accused after noting that the accused allegedly possessed complainant’s inappropriate photographs as well as videos and non-bailable warrants had already been issued against him.
The bail application under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Cr.P.C) had been filed by the applicant, seeking grant of anticipatory bail in relation to FIR registered under Sections 376(2)(n)/354(B)/323/ 342/506 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC).
The FIR in question was registered on the complaint of the complainant, who had stated that in February 2020, she had participated in a debate competition in college 'X' where she had met the accused Rituraj, who was pursuing his degree at College 'Y'. It was alleged that he had sent several messages to the victim on her Instagram account, after which accused and complainant started communicating through Whatsapp and Instagram and became friends.
The complainant had accepted the accused’s invitation for dinner. After dinner, the accused had asked the complainant to stay back with him. She had accepted the offer as both of them were good friends. Thereafter, late in the night, the accused entered the room of the complainant and tried to get intimate with her. As alleged, the accused had started kissing her body parts without her consent, and forcibly established physical relations with her. The complainant had also alleged that the accused had recorded inappropriate videos and photographs of the complainant, and had threatened her that he would publish them on social media platforms in case, the complainant disclosed anything to anyone.
After this incident, the complainant suffered mental health issues due to this trauma and even developed suicidal tendency. Thereafter, the accused tried to contact the complainant while insisting that he would delete the photographs and videos of the complainant if she would visit him in his house. However, instead, the accused visited her home and again forcibly established physical relations with her without her consent. On the pretext of deleting the photographs the accused kept on forcefully establishing physical relations with her. It was also alleged by the complainant that these events had led to the deterioration of her mental health, due to which she had also consulted doctors at AIIMS, Delhi between October 2022 and January 2023.
The Bench of Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma noted that the Instagram posts reflected that the victim/ complainant had written about the incident which had taken place with her.
“The appropriateness of the Instagram posts and her conduct cannot be gone into by this Court, rather it will be inappropriate for this Court to comment on the same, at this stage. The contention of learned counsel for the accused/applicant that the relationship between the complainant and the accused was consensual is not ascertainable from any Instagram post on which he relies upon”, the Bench held.
Thereafter, the Bench perused the medical records, shown by the investigating officer, relating to treatment for depression undergone by the complainant as well as the statement of the complainant recorded, for the purpose of dealing with present bail application.
“While considering the same, this Court notes that there are specific allegations of forced sexual assault of aggravated nature. The accused has not joined the investigation, and as per order of the learned Trial Court, despite sufficient efforts and attempts made by the Investigating Officer, the accused is not traceable”, the Bench said.
Noting that there were also specific allegations regarding the accused being in possession of inappropriate photographs and videos pertaining to the complainant which needed to be recovered, the Bench also considered the fact that non-bailable warrants had already been issued against the accused.
Thus, in view of such facts and circumstances, the Bench refused to exercise its jurisdiction for grant of anticipatory bail to the present accused/applicant.
Read Order: ADITYA SARDA v. ARJUN SINGH
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 29, 2023: The Delhi High Court has dismissed a petition challenging the dismissal of an application under section 311 of CrPC while observing that ample opportunities were available to the petitioner/complainant for summoning additional witnesses but the application u/s 311 was preferred only at the stage of final arguments.
The Single-Judge Bench of Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma was considering a petition filed under Section 482 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 on behalf of the petitioner against the impugned order dated 23.11.2019 passed by the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Rohini Courts, New Delhi whereby the application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. preferred by the complainant was dismissed.
The petitioner, in this case, had filed a complaint under Section 499 and 500 of Indian Penal Code against the respondent. Thereafter, notice under Section 251 of Cr.P.C. was served to the respondent in the year 2012. The examination-in-chief of the complainant had commenced on 24.04.2018. The right of the respondent to further cross-examine the complainant was closed. Thereafter, the respondent had filed an application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. before the Trial Court for recalling of witness which was allowed, after which the complainant was partly cross-examined and finally discharged on 14.12.2018.
The petitioner had moved an application for summoning of additional witnesses which was allowed by the Trial Court. Thereafter, it came to the knowledge of the petitioner that there were certain witnesses that might have had records which were relevant to the case and an application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. was filed before the Trial Court which was dismissed vide order dated 23.11.2019.
It was argued from the petitioner’s side that the mandate of Section 311 of Cr.P.C. is to bring to light the relevant facts that may be important for proper adjudication of trial. The complainant had filed the application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. before the Trial Court for summoning of witnesses as the records in relations to letter which were written by the accused were relevant to the facts of the present case and essential for establishing the case of the prosecution.
On the contrary, the respondent submitted that the application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. was filed by the complainant to delay the trial and the complainant had taken ample time to record his evidence.
After placing reliance upon Vijay Kumar v. State of U.P. [LQ/SC/2011/1003] ; State (NCT of Delhi) v. Shiv Kumar Yadav [LQ/SC/2015/1198] ; Ratanlal v. Prahlad Jat [LQ/SC/2017/1391], the Bench reaffirmed that the recall of witness is not a matter of course and power under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. has to be exercised judiciously, with caution and circumspection, and not arbitrarily or capriciously, on the basis of facts and circumstances of each case.
It was further reinstated that the discretionary power has to be balanced carefully with considerations such as uncalled for hardship to the witnesses and uncalled for delay in trial.
Coming to the merits of the case, the Bench held that complaint in the present matter was filed in the year 2011 and the trial had been delayed for a fairly long period. It was further noted that the complainant's evidence commenced on 26.07.2013 and due to one reason or another, the evidence of the complainant was deferred and it was finally concluded after a period of more than six years.
The Bench took note of the fact that an application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. was filed by the present petitioner/complainant for summoning of additional witnesses on 18.01.2019, which was allowed by the Trial Court, but no record could be produced. The complainant was then required to take appropriate steps for locating the relevant record and get the same produced before the Trial Court but the petitioner failed to do so.
The application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. was filed by the petitioner before the Trial Court at the stage of final arguments which was dismissed. The present petition had also been filed at a stage when the judgment was already reserved in the matter and it was put up for pronouncement by the Trial Court.
Noting that ample opportunities were available to the petitioner/complainant for summoning of additional witnesses and the application under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. was preferred only at the stage of final arguments, the Bench held, “…this Court is of the opinion that the provisions of Section 311 of Cr.P.C. cannot be used to delay the proceedings or to cause inconvenience to the other party as that also amounts to miscarriage of justice by delaying the trial, or for abuse of process of law.”
Thus, without finding any merit in the petition, the Bench dismissed the same.
Read Order: NAEEM AHMED (IN JC) v. STATE GOVT OF NCT OF DELHI
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 28, 2023: The Delhi High Court has rejected the bail plea of an NDPS accused in light of the fact that the issue in question, i.e., whether a charge-sheet filed without FSL report is complete or incomplete for the purpose of default bail, has not been decided by the Apex Court.
The petition under Article 227 of the Constitution of India read with Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 had been filed praying to set aside the impugned order passed by the Special Judge, NDPS, registered under Sections 21/29/61/85 of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (NDPS Act). Prayer was also made to release the applicant on default bail in the aforesaid FIR.
The allegations against the present accused Naeem were that he had come to meet co-accused Arif, for the purpose of obtaining the narcotic drug i.e. morphine from him and to further sell it on commission basis. The petitioner was alleged to be a part of larger conspiracy, and he was arrested at the spot by the raiding team, alongwith two other co-accused. The recovery made in the present case was of 340 grams of morphine, which is commercial quantity. The FSL report filed by way of supplementary chargesheet confirmed the recovered substance to be morphine.
The main grievance of petitioner was that the Special judge had erroneously declined the relief of default bail to him.
The single-judge Bench of Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma took note of the fact that the co-accused Arif had now been enlarged on bail by the Apex Court and the said relief had been granted to him on similar ground i.e. pendency of larger issue i.e. whether chargesheet filed without an FSL report is incomplete chargesheet, before the Apex Court.
However, the Bench noted that neither the decisions challenged before the Apex Court had been stayed, nor any general directions had been given to the Courts to release the accused persons on default bail if the chargesheet is filed without an FSL report.
“In such circumstances, this Court finds no ground to set aside the impugned order or to release the petitioner on default bail”, the Bench held while dismissing the bail application.
Read Order: SAKIL AHMAD v. STATE OF NCT OF DELHI
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 28, 2023: The Delhi High Court has reaffirmed that Section 167 of CrPC provides indefeasible right to default bail which arises at the very moment of expiry of the stipulated period of 60 days.
The application under Section 439 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 had been filed by the petitioner seeking grant of regular bail in a case registered under Section 354 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 and Section 8 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offence Act, 2012.
Briefly stated, the facts of the present case were that a PCR Call, regarding physical assault of a 17 year old victim was received at P.S. Govindpuri, New Delhi. The victim had stated that she is living with her parents in Govindpuri, and is currently studying.
It was stated that her mother had called barber Sakil Ahamad i.e. the present applicant/accused to cut her hair and he had visited their home in the night. It was alleged that the present applicant/accused Sakil Ahamad had molested the minor victim. Thereafter, the present FIR was registered and the medical examination of the victim was conducted at AIIMS, New Delhi. During the course of investigation, present applicant/accused Sakil Ahmad was arrested.
It was argued from the side of the applicant that the charge-sheet in the said FIR was filed on the 61st Day. He points out that the first day of the remand in this case i.e. 03.05.2023 is to be included for the purpose of calculating the statutory period of completion of investigation and filing of chargesheet. It was submitted that the day when the accused was remanded has to be included in the statutory period provided under Section 167(2) of Cr.P.C.
The single-judge Bench of Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma noted that the application had been filed seeking grant of default bail on the ground that the chargesheet in the present case was not filed within the stipulated period of 60 days as has been mandated by the provisions of Section 167 of Cr.P.C.
Reference was also made to Enforcement Directorate, Government of India v. Kapil Wadhawan & Anr wherein it was had held that the day of remand shall be counted within the stipulated period of 60 days as has been mandated by Section 167 of Cr.P.C.
Placing reliance on this judgment, the High Court reaffirmed that the provision of Section 167 of Cr.P.C. provides an indefeasible right to default bail which arises at the very moment of expiry of the stipulated period of 60 days. The investigating agency is under this obligation to file the chargesheet within the stipulated period and if the same is filed beyond this period then the accused will have an indefeasible right to default bail.
On the merits of the case, the Bench observed that the applicant/accused was arrested on 02.05.2023 and the remand order was issued on 03.05.2023. The date of remand of the accused had to be seen as the date of beginning of the stipulated period of 60 days as held by Enforcement Directorate, Government of India v. Kapil Wadhawan & Anr. (Supra).
The chargesheet in the present case was prepared on 01.07.2023 and was filed before the Trial Court on 02.07.2023 as recorded in order dated 02.07.2023 passed by the Trial Court. Thus, the Bench observed that the period of consideration before this Court was from 02.05.2023 to 02.07.2023.
It was also noted that as per calculation, the total number of days taken for the filing of chargesheet in the present case thus come to be 61 days, which is more than the stipulated period of 60 days as has been mandated by the provision of Section 167 of Cr.P.C.
Thus, considering the fact that the chargesheet was not filed within the stipulated period of 60 days as mandated by Section 167 of Cr.P.C., the Bench was inclined to grant default bail to the applicant on his furnishing personal bond in the sum of Rs 25,000 with one surety of the like amount to the satisfaction of the Trial Court/Successor Court/Link Court/Duty Judge concerned on certain terms and conditions.
Read Order: SALMAN v. STATE GOVT OF NCT OF DELHI
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 28, 2023: In a case where recovery of 340 grams of morphine was made, the Delhi High Court has rejected the bail plea of a man booked under the provisions of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
The Single-Judge Bench of Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma was considering an application filed under Section 439 read with Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ('Cr.P.C.') on behalf of the applicant seeking regular bail in a case registered for offences punishable under Sections 21/29/61/85 of NDPS Act.
In a nutshell, the case of prosecution was that the co-accused Arif and two other co-accused including the present applicant were apprehended on 26.03.2022 at the instance of a secret informer near N.S. Marg/Ansari Road, Mahavir Vatika. Upon search of Arif, after compliance of statutory provisions, a plastic box was recovered from his bag, containing 340 grams of morphine, which was commercial quantity. On the basis of Call Detail Records and disclosure of accused persons, two more accused persons were arrested later on.
Thus, the allegations against the present accused Salman were that he had come to meet co-accused Arif, for the purpose of obtaining the narcotic drug i.e. morphine from him and to further sell it on commission basis. The applicant was alleged to be a part of larger conspiracy, and he was arrested at the spot by the raiding team, alongwith two other co-accused.
The recovery made in the present case was of 340 grams of morphine, which is commercial quantity, the Bench noted. The FSL report filed by way of supplementary chargesheet dated 31.08.2023 confirmed the recovered substance to be morphine.
Further, as it appeared prima facie from the material placed on record, the applicant was served a notice under Section 50 of NDPS Act and the raid had been conducted and arrests had been made after following the procedure prescribed under law.
As commercial quantity of contraband was involved in this case, the Bench opined that section 37 will be attracted. Reference was also made to Narcotics Control Bureau v. Mohit Aggarwal wherein it has been opined that the expression "reasonable grounds" used in clause (b) of Sub-Section (1) of Section 37 would mean credible, plausible and grounds for the Court to believe that the accused person is not guilty of the alleged offence. For arriving at any such conclusion, such facts and circumstances must exist in a case that can persuade the Court to believe that the accused person would not have committed such an offence.
“The FSL report has already been filed before the learned Trial Court by way of supplementary chargesheet, and the charges are yet to be framed in the present case, and material witnesses are yet to be examined. Considering the overall facts and circumstances of the case, this Court is not inclined to grant regular bail to the applicant at this stage”, the Bench held.
Thus, the bail petition was dismissed.
Read Order: INNOCENT DURU @MONDAY v. STATE THROUGH SHO
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 28, 2023: In a case where the complainant alleged that the accused had tortured him and his brother, the Delhi High Court has dismissed the petition of the accused seeking anticipatory bail in a case registered under Sections 323/342/365/392/34 IPC.
The factual background of this case was that on 31.08.2023, the complainant was present in his house along with her brother and a friend, thereafter, in evening one of his brothers rang the bell and his another brother opened the door. As soon as the brother of the complainant closed the door, it wasalleged that the present petitioner along with co-accused persons forcefully entered the house and slapped the brother of the complainant and thereafter, they started hitting the complainant and robbed their mobile phones along with an amount of Rs 1 lakh and took the complainant his brother and his friend to All India Nigerian Students and Community Association where they were kept for about two and a half hour and were beaten by the petitioner and co-accused persons.
It was further alleged that on 01.09.2023, the complainant and his friends were again tied with chain and beaten by the present petitioner and the co-accused persons. It was further stated that the complainant was shifted to some other place where he was kept in a room till 13.09.2023 and during this period the complainant was severely beaten by the present petitioner and the co-accused persons.
Thereafter, the present petitioner brought the complainant out of the said room from where the complainant managed to escape and reached the police Station. As a result, on the basis of the written statement of the complainant, the FIR was registered.
The single-judge Bench of Justice Rajnish Bhatnagar opined that the allegations against the petitioner were grave and serious in nature. The FIR also reveals that complainant has been tortured to the maximum possible level and even Rs.1 lakh was looted from him.
“It is pertinent to note here that the complainant, even after receiving such atrocities, has made specific allegations against the petitioner. One cannot lose sight of the fact that the petitioner has been clearly visible in the CCTV footage which in my opinion is the last nail in the coffin”, the Bench noticed.
Thus, keeping in view the entire facts and circumstances and also the fact that there were specific allegations against the petitioner which were grave and serious in nature, the Bench dismissed the anticipatory bail application.
Read Order: MR. AMANDEEP SINGH DHALL v. DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT
Tulip Kanth
New Delhi, December 28, 2023: Considering the fact that no immediate arrangement could be made by the jail dispensary for ensuring appropriate medical care of an accused under the PMLA, the Delhi High Court has allowed his request to get the required physiotherapy treatment at the Safdarjung Hospital.
The single-judge Bench of Justice Swarana Kanta Sharma observed that every prison inmate, regardless of the fact that such person is an accused or convict, possesses an inherent right to life and humane treatment. This includes the right to receive medical care that addresses his health needs and prevents unnecessary suffering.
The PMLA accused (Applicant) had filed applications under Sections 439 & 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 with Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA Act) seeking grant of interim bail for a period of twelve weeks on medical grounds.
It was the applicant’s case that he was not being provided proper and appropriate treatment in terms of post-epidural care in the prison premises, and thus, the he prayed to be released on interim bail, in order to get appropriate treatment from Indian Spinal Injuries Centre, Vasant Kunj, Delhi.
After considering the medical history of the applicant and the medical status report filed on record, the Bench noted that the medical facility at the prison complex wasn’t able to provide appropriate medical care which was required by the applicant in terms of post-epidural care. The dispensary at Central Jail-07 did not have the required medical equipment required for physiotherapy sessions of the applicant, the Bench noted while holding that the medical condition of the applicant was such that if the medical treatment as suggested to the applicant was not provided to him, the same might lead to paralysis of his upper limb.
“To neglect the medical well-being of prisoners is to deny them a fundamental right to life”, the Bench said while also adding that in the eyes of the law, every prison inmate is equal and possesses the basic human right to receive adequate medical care, reinforcing the foundational principles of a legal system which is not only just but also humane.
Next, the Bench dealt with the issue concerning the standard of medical treatment within correctional facilities, shedding light on the alarming inadequacies in the healthcare infrastructure for prison inmates. The Bench was of the opinion that the Courts cannot allow inadequate prison health care system to violate a prisoner’s right to timely and adequate medical health care.
Considering the fact that the medical facilities available at the jail dispensary was not able to provide the medical treatment which is required by the applicant, as adviced by the doctors concerned in terms of post-epidural care after his spinal surgery, the Bench allowed the request of applicant to get the required physiotherapy treatment at the Safdarjung Hospital, Delhi. “In case, the required medical care is not available at Safdarjung Hospital, Delhi, the applicant may move a fresh application before this Court for being treated at Indian Spinal Injuries Centre, Vasant Kunj, Delhi”, the Bench added.
Lastly, emphasizing that Government of NCT of Delhi is responsible for the management and maintenance of the prison premises, the Bench also passed the following directions:
a) This Court directs the Secretary (Home), Government of NCT of Delhi, and Secretary, Health and Family Welfare, Government of NCT of Delhi to ensure that the health care requirements of the prison inmates are met and adequate medical infrastructure in the jail premises is maintained for ensuring right of prisoners to appropriate medical care.
b) This Court further directs the concerned doctors Incharge of respective Jail Dispensaries to furnish the list of requirements of adequate medical equipment which is essential for the medical care of the prison inmates, to the concerned Chief Medical Officers.
c) The Chief Medical Officers of all the prisons will submit a weekly report to the Director General, Prisons, who will communicate this report to the Jail Visiting Judicial Officer/Judge concerned regarding inadequacies or urgent requirements in their respective jail hospital/dispensary including the working or non- working condition of the machines and medical equipment and availability of medicines, etc.
d) The weekly report prepared by the Chief Medical Officers of all the prisons will also be sent to Secretary (Home), Government of NCT of Delhi, and Secretary, Health and Family Welfare, Government of NCT of Delhi. The issues so pointed out in the report mentioned above, will be addressed and the necessary supplies, equipments, medicines will be ensured to be provided within two days. The machines/medical equipment if not in order, will be repaired or a substitute will be provided immediately by the State.
e) The Secretary, Health and Family Welfare, Government of NCT of Delhi will constitute a Committee who will be giving suggestions, regarding improving the health care facilities in the prisons and ways to promote equal health care to all prisoners.
Time for judiciary to introspect and see what can be done to restore people’s faith – Justice Lokur
Justice Madan B Lokur, was a Supreme Court judge from June 2012 to December 2018. He is now a judge of the non-resident panel of the Supreme Court of Fiji. He spoke to LegitQuest on January 25, 2020.
Q: You were a Supreme Court judge for more than 6 years. Do SC judges have their own ups and downs, in the sense that do you have any frustrations about cases, things not working out, the kind of issues that come to you?
A: There are no ups and downs in that sense but sometimes you do get a little upset at the pace of justice delivery. I felt that there were occasions when justice could have been delivered much faster, a case could have been decided much faster than it actually was. (When there is) resistance in that regard normally from the state, from the establishment, then you kind of feel what’s happening, what can I do about it.
Q: So you have had the feeling that the establishment is trying to interfere in the matters?
A: No, not interfering in matters but not giving the necessary importance to some cases. So if something has to be done in four weeks, for example if reply has to be filed within four weeks and they don’t file it in four weeks just because they feel that it doesn’t matter, and it’s ok if we file it within six weeks how does it make a difference. But it does make a difference.
Q: Do you think this attitude is merely a lax attitude or is it an infrastructure related problem?
A: I don’t know. Sometimes on some issues the government or the establishment takes it easy. They don’t realise the urgency. So that’s one. Sometimes there are systemic issues, for example, you may have a case that takes much longer than anticipated and therefore you can’t take up some other case. Then that necessarily has to be adjourned. So these things have to be planned very carefully.
Q: Are there any cases that you have special memories of in terms of your personal experiences while dealing with the case? It might have moved you or it may have made you feel that this case is really important though it may not be considered important by the government or may have escaped the media glare?
A: All the cases that I did with regard to social justice, cases which concern social justice and which concern the environment, I think all of them were important. They gave me some satisfaction, some frustration also, in the sense of time, but I would certainly remember all these cases.
Q: Even though you were at the Supreme Court as a jurist, were there any learning experiences for you that may have surprised you?
A: There were learning experiences, yes. And plenty of them. Every case is a learning experience because you tend to look at the same case with two different perspectives. So every case is a great learning experience. You know how society functions, how the state functions, what is going on in the minds of the people, what is it that has prompted them to come the court. There is a great learning, not only in terms of people and institutions but also in terms of law.
Q: You are a Judge of the Supreme Court of Fiji, though a Non-Resident Judge. How different is it in comparison to being a Judge in India?
A: There are some procedural distinctions. For example, there is a great reliance in Fiji on written submissions and for the oral submissions they give 45 minutes to a side. So the case is over within 1 1/2 hours maximum. That’s not the situation here in India. The number of cases in Fiji are very few. Yes, it’s a small country, with a small number of cases. Cases are very few so it’s only when they have an adequate number of cases that they will have a session and as far as I am aware they do not have more than two or three sessions in a year and the session lasts for maybe about three weeks. So it’s not that the court sits every day or that I have to shift to Fiji. When it is necessary and there are a good number of cases then they will have a session, unlike here. It is then that I am required to go to Fiji for three weeks. The other difference is that in every case that comes to the (Fiji) Supreme Court, even if special leave is not granted, you have to give a detailed judgement which is not the practice here.
Q: There is a lot of backlog in the lower courts in India which creates a problem for the justice delivery system. One reason is definitely shortage of judges. What are the other reasons as to why there is so much backlog of cases in the trial courts?
A: I think case management is absolutely necessary and unless we introduce case management and alternative methods of dispute resolution, we will not be able to solve the problem. I will give you a very recent example about the Muzaffarpur children’s home case (in Bihar) where about 34 girls were systematically raped. There were about 17 or 18 accused persons but the entire trial finished within six months. Now that was only because of the management and the efforts of the trial judge and I think that needs to be studied how he could do it. If he could do such a complex case with so many eyewitnesses and so many accused persons in a short frame of time, I don’t see why other cases cannot be decided within a specified time frame. That’s case management. The second thing is so far as other methods of disposal of cases are concerned, we have had a very good experience in trial courts in Delhi where more than one lakh cases have been disposed of through mediation. So, mediation must be encouraged at the trial level because if you can dispose so many cases you can reduce the workload. For criminal cases, you have Plea Bargaining that has been introduced in 2009 but not put into practice. We did make an attempt in the Tis Hazari Courts. It worked to some extent but after that it fell into disuse. So, plea bargaining can take care of a lot of cases. And there will be certain categories of cases which we need to look at carefully. For example, you have cases of compoundable offences, you have cases where fine is the punishment and not necessarily imprisonment, or maybe it’s imprisonment say one month or two month’s imprisonment. Do we need to actually go through a regular trial for these kind of cases? Can they not be resolved or adjudicated through Plea Bargaining? This will help the system, it will help in Prison Reforms, (prevent) overcrowding in prisons. So there are a lot of avenues available for reducing the backlog. But I think an effort has to be made to resolve all that.
Q: Do you think there are any systemic flaws in the country’s justice system, or the way trial courts work?
A: I don’t think there are any major systemic flaws. It’s just that case management has not been given importance. If case management is given importance, then whatever systematic flaws are existing, they will certainly come down.
Q; And what about technology. Do you think technology can play a role in improving the functioning of the justice delivery system?
I think technology is very important. You are aware of the e-courts project. Now I have been told by many judges and many judicial academies that the e-courts project has brought about sort of a revolution in the trial courts. There is a lot of information that is available for the litigants, judges, lawyers and researchers and if it is put to optimum use or even semi optimum use, it can make a huge difference. Today there are many judges who are using technology and particularly the benefits of the e-courts project is an adjunct to their work. Some studies on how technology can be used or the e-courts project can be used to improve the system will make a huge difference.
Q: What kind of technology would you recommend that courts should have?
A: The work that was assigned to the e-committee I think has been taken care of, if not fully, then largely to the maximum possible extent. Now having done the work you have to try and take advantage of the work that’s been done, find out all the flaws and see how you can rectify it or remove those flaws. For example, we came across a case where 94 adjournments were given in a criminal case. Now why were 94 adjournments given? Somebody needs to study that, so that information is available. And unless you process that information, things will just continue, you will just be collecting information. So as far as I am concerned, the task of collecting information is over. We now need to improve information collection and process available information and that is something I think should be done.
Q: There is a debate going on about the rights of death row convicts. CJI Justice Bobde recently objected to death row convicts filing lot of petitions, making use of every legal remedy available to them. He said the rights of the victim should be given more importance over the rights of the accused. But a lot of legal experts have said that these remedies are available to correct the anomalies, if any, in the justice delivery. Even the Centre has urged the court to adopt a more victim-centric approach. What is your opinion on that?
You see so far as procedures are concerned, when a person knows that s/he is going to die in a few days or a few months, s/he will do everything possible to live. Now you can’t tell a person who has got terminal cancer that there is no point in undergoing chemotherapy because you are going to die anyway. A person is going to fight for her/his life to the maximum extent. So if a person is on death row s/he will do everything possible to survive. You have very exceptional people like Bhagat Singh who are ready to face (the gallows) but that’s why they are exceptional. So an ordinary person will do everything possible (to survive). So if the law permits them to do all this, they will do it.
Q: Do you think law should permit this to death row convicts?
A: That is for the Parliament to decide. The law is there, the Constitution is there. Now if the Parliament chooses not to enact a law which takes into consideration the rights of the victims and the people who are on death row, what can anyone do? You can’t tell a person on death row that listen, if you don’t file a review petition within one week, I will hang you. If you do not file a curative petition within three days, then I will hang you. You also have to look at the frame of mind of a person facing death. Victims certainly, but also the convict.
Q: From the point of jurisprudence, do you think death row convicts’ rights are essential? Or can their rights be done away with?
A: I don’t know you can take away the right of a person fighting for his life but you have to strike a balance somewhere. To say that you must file a review or curative or mercy petition in one week, it’s very difficult. You tell somebody else who is not on a death row that you can file a review petition within 30 days but a person who is on death row you tell him that I will give you only one week, it doesn’t make any sense to me. In fact it should probably be the other way round.
Q: What about capital punishment as a means of punishment itself?
A: There has been a lot of debate and discussion about capital punishment but I think that world over it has now been accepted, more or less, that death penalty has not served the purpose for which it was intended. So, there are very few countries that are executing people. The United States, Saudi Arabia, China, Pakistan also, but it hasn’t brought down the crime rate. And India has been very conservative in imposing the death penalty. I think the last 3-4 executions have happened for the persons who were terrorists. And apart from that there was one from Calcutta who was hanged for rape and murder. But the fact that he was hanged for rape and murder has not deterred people (from committing rape and murder). So the accepted view is that death penalty has not served the purpose. We certainly need to rethink the continuance of capital punishment. On the other hand, if capital punishment is abolished, there might be fake encounter killings or extra judicial killings.
Q: These days there is the psyche among people of ‘instant justice’, like we saw in the case of the Hyderabad vet who was raped and murdered. The four accused in the case were killed in an encounter and the public at large and even politicians hailed it as justice being delivery. Do you think this ‘lynch mob mentality’ reflects people’s lack of faith in the justice system?
A: I think in this particular case about what happened in Telangana, investigation was still going on. About what actually happened there, an enquiry is going on. So no definite conclusions have come out. According to the police these people tried to snatch weapons so they had to be shot. Now it is very difficult to believe, as far as I am concerned, that 10 armed policeman could not overpower four unarmed accused persons. This is very difficult to believe. And assuming one of them happened to have snatched a (cop’s) weapon, maybe he could have been incapacitated but why the other three? So there are a lot of questions that are unanswered. So far as the celebrations are concerned, the people who are celebrating, do they know for certain that they (those killed in the encounter) were the ones who did the crime? How can they be so sure about it? They were not eye witnesses. Even witnesses sometimes make mistakes. This is really not a cause for celebration. Certainly not.
Q: It seems some people are losing their faith in the country’s justice delivery system. How to repose people’s faith in the legal process?
A: You see we again come back to case management and speedy justice. Suppose the Nirbhaya case would have been decided within two or three years, would this (Telangana) incident have happened? One can’t say. The attack on Parliament case was decided in two or three years but that has not wiped out terrorism. There are a lot of factors that go into all this, so there is a need to find ways of improving justice delivery so that you don’t have any extremes – where a case takes 10 years or another extreme where there is instant justice. There has to be something in between, some balance has to be drawn. Now you have that case where Phoolan Devi was gangraped followed by the Behmai massacre. Now this is a case of 1981, it has been 40 years and the trial court has still not delivered a judgement. It’s due any day now, (but) whose fault is that. You have another case in Maharashtra that has been transferred to National Investigating Agency two years after the incident, the Bhima-Koregaon case. Investigation is supposedly not complete after two years also. Whose fault is that? So you have to look at the entire system in a holistic manner. There are many players – the investigation agency is one player, the prosecution is one player, the defence is one player, the justice delivery system is one player. So unless all of them are in a position to coordinate… you cannot blame only the justice delivery system. If the Telangana police was so sure that the persons they have caught are guilty, why did they not file the charge sheet immediately? If they were so sure the charge sheet should have been filed within one day. Why didn’t they do it?
Q: At the trial level, there are many instances of flaws in evidence collection. Do you think the police or whoever the investigators are, do they lack training?
A: Yes they do! The police lacks training. I think there is a recent report that has come out last week which says very few people (in the police) have been trained (to collect evidence).
Q: You think giving proper training to police to prepare a case will make a difference?
A: Yes, it will make a difference.
Q: You have a keen interest in juvenile justice. Unfortunately, a lot of heinous crimes are committed by juveniles. How can we correct that?
A: You see it depends upon what perspective we are looking at. Now these heinous crimes are committed by juveniles. Heinous crimes are committed by adults also, so why pick upon juveniles alone and say something should be done because juveniles are committing heinous crimes. Why is it that people are not saying that something should be done when adults are committing heinous crimes? That’s one perspective. There are a lot of heinous crimes that are committed against juveniles. The number of crimes committed against juveniles or children are much more than the crimes committed by juveniles. How come nobody is talking about that? And the people committing heinous crimes against children are adults. So is it okay to say that the State has imposed death penalty for an offence against the child? So that’s good enough, nothing more needs to be done? I don’t think that’s a valid answer. The establishment must keep in mind the fact that the number of heinous crimes against children are much more than those committed by juveniles. We must shift focus.
Q: Coming to NRC and CAA. Protests have been happening since December last year, the SC is waiting for the Centre’s reply, the Delhi HC has refused to directly intervene. Neither the protesters nor the government is budging. How do we achieve a breakthrough?
A: It is for the government to decide what they want to do. If the government says it is not going to budge, and the people say they are not going to budge, the stalemate could continue forever.
Q: Do you think the CAA and the NRC will have an impact on civil liberties, personal liberties and people’s rights?
A: Yes, and that is one of the reasons why there is protest all over the country. And people have realised that it is going to happen, it is going to have an impact on their lives, on their rights and that’s why they are protesting. So the answer to your question is yes.
Q: Across the world and in India, we are seeing an erosion of the value system upholding rights and liberties. How important is it for the healthy functioning of a country that social justice, people’s liberties, people’s rights are maintained?
A: I think social justice issues, fundamental rights are of prime importance in our country, in any democracy, and the preamble to our Constitution makes it absolutely clear and the judgement of the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati and many other subsequent judgments also make it clear that you cannot change the basic structure of the Constitution. If you cannot do that then obviously you cannot take away some basic democratic rights like freedom of assembly, freedom of movement, you cannot take them away. So if you have to live in a democracy, we have to accept the fact that these rights cannot be taken away. Otherwise there are many countries where there is no democracy. I don’t know whether those people are happy or not happy.
Q: What will happen if in a democracy these rights are controlled by hook or by crook?
A: It depends upon how much they are controlled. If the control is excessive then that is wrong. The Constitution says there must be a reasonable restriction. So reasonable restriction by law is very important.
Q: The way in which the sexual harassment case against Justice Gogoi was handled was pretty controversial. The woman has now been reinstated in the Supreme Court as a staffer. Does this action of the Supreme Court sort of vindicate her?
A: I find this very confusing you know. There is an old joke among lawyers: Lawyer for the petitioner argued before the judge and the judge said you are right; then the lawyer for the respondent argued before the judge and the judge said you’re right; then a third person sitting over there says how can both of them be right and the judge says you’re also right. So this is what has happened in this case. It was found (by the SC committee) that what she said had no substance. And therefore, she was wrong and the accused was right. Now she has been reinstated with back wages and all. I don’t know, I find it very confusing.
Q: Do you think the retirement age of Supreme Court Judges should be raised to 70 years and there should be a fixed tenure?
A: I haven’t thought about it as yet. There are some advantages, there are some disadvantages. (When) You have extended age or life tenure as in the United States, and the Supreme Court has a particular point of view, it will continue for a long time. So in the United States you have liberal judges and conservative judges, so if the number of conservative judges is high then the court will always be conservative. If the number of liberal judges is high, the court will always be liberal. There is this disadvantage but there is also an advantage that if it’s a liberal court and if it is a liberal democracy then it will work for the benefit of the people. But I have not given any serious thought onthis.
Q: Is there any other thing you would like to say?
A: I think the time has come for the judiciary to sit down, introspect and see what can be done, because people have faith in the judiciary. A lot of that faith has been eroded in the last couple of years. So one has to restore that faith and then increase that faith. I think the judiciary definitely needs to introspect.
‘A major issue for startups, especially during fund raising, is their compliance with extant RBI foreign exchange regulations, pricing guidelines, and the Companies Act 2013.’- Aakash Parihar
Aakash Parihar is Partner at Triumvir Law, a firm specializing in M&A, PE/VC, startup advisory, international commercial arbitration, and corporate disputes. He is an alumnus of the National Law School of India University, Bangalore.
How did you come across law as a career? Tell us about what made you decide law as an option.
Growing up in a small town in Madhya Pradesh, wedid not have many options.There you either study to become a doctor or an engineer. As the sheep follows the herd, I too jumped into 11th grade with PCM (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).However, shortly after, I came across the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) and the prospect of law as a career. Being a law aspirant without any background of legal field, I hardly knew anything about the legal profession leave alone the niche areas of corporate lawor dispute resolution. Thereafter, I interacted with students from various law schools in India to understand law as a career and I opted to sit for CLAT. Fortunately, my hard work paid off and I made it to the hallowed National Law School of India University, Bangalore (NSLIU). Joining NLSIU and moving to Bangalorewas an overwhelming experience. However, after a few months, I settled in and became accustomed to the rigorous academic curriculum. Needless to mention that it was an absolute pleasure to study with and from someof the brightest minds in legal academia. NLSIU, Bangalore broadened my perspective about law and provided me with a new set of lenses to comprehend the world around me. Through this newly acquired perspective and a great amount of hard work (which is of course irreplaceable), I was able to procure a job in my fourth year at law school and thus began my journey.
As a lawyer carving a niche for himself, tell us about your professional journey so far. What are the challenges that new lawyers face while starting out in the legal field?
I started my professional journey as an Associate at Samvad Partners, Bangalore, where I primarily worked in the corporate team. Prior to Samvad Partners, through my internship, I had developed an interest towards corporate law,especially the PE/VC and M&A practice area. In the initial years as an associate at Samvad Partners and later at AZB & Partners, Mumbai, I had the opportunity to work on various aspects of corporate law, i.e., from PE/VC and M&A with respect to listed as well as unlisted companies. My work experience at these firms equipped and provided me the know-how to deal with cutting edge transactional lawyering. At this point, it is important to mention that I always had aspirations to join and develop a boutique firm. While I was working at AZB, sometime around March 2019, I got a call from Anubhab, Founder of Triumvir Law, who told me about the great work Triumvir Law was doing in the start-up and emerging companies’ ecosystem in Bangalore. The ambition of the firm aligned with mine,so I took a leap of faith to move to Bangalore to join Triumvir Law.
Anyone who is a first-generation lawyer in the legal industry will agree with my statement that it is never easy to build a firm, that too so early in your career. However, that is precisely the notion that Triumvir Law wanted to disrupt. To provide quality corporate and dispute resolution advisory to clients across India and abroad at an affordable price point.
Once you start your professional journey, you need to apply everything that you learnt in law schoolwith a practical perspective. Therefore, in my opinion, in addition to learning the practical aspects of law, a young lawyer needs to be accustomed with various practices of law before choosing one specific field to practice.
India has been doing reallywell in the field of M&A and PE/VC. Since you specialize in M&A and PE/VC dealmaking, what according to you has been working well for the country in this sphere? What does the future look like?
India is a developing economy, andM&A and PE/VC transactions form the backbone of the same. Since liberalization, there has been an influx of foreign investment in India, and we have seen an exponential rise in PC/VA and M&A deals. Indian investment market growth especially M&A and PE/VC aspects can be attributed to the advent of startup culture in India. The increase in M&A and PE/VC deals require corporate lawyersto handle the legal aspects of these deals.
As a corporate lawyer working in M&A and PE/VC space, my work ranges from drafting term-sheets to the transaction documents (SPA, SSA, SHA, BTA, etc.). TheM&A and PE/VC deal space experienced a slump during the first few months of the pandemic, but since June 2021, there has been a significant growth in M&A and PE/VC deal space in India. The growth and consistence of the M&A and PE/VC deal space in India can be attributed to several factors such as foreign investment, uncapped demands in the Indian market and exceptional performance of Indian startups.
During the pandemic many businesses were shut down but surprisingly many new businesses started, which adapted to the challenges imposed by the pandemic. Since we are in the recovery mode, I think the M&A and PE/VC deal space will reach bigger heights in the comingyears. We as a firm look forward to being part of this recovery mode by being part of the more M&A and PE/VC deals in future.
You also advice start-ups. What are the legal issues or challenges that the start-ups usually face specifically in India? Do these issues/challenges have long-term consequences?
We do a considerable amount of work with startupswhich range from day-to-day legal advisory to transaction documentation during a funding round. In India, we have noticed that a sizeable amount of clientele approach counsels only when there is a default or breach, more often than not in a state of panic. The same principle applies to startups in India, they normally approach us at a stage when they are about to receive investment or are undergoing due diligence. At that point of time, we need to understand their legal issues as well as manage the demands of the investor’s legal team. The majornon-compliances by startups usually involve not maintaining proper agreements, delaying regulatory filings and secretarial compliances, and not focusing on proper corporate governance.
Another major issue for startups, especially during fund raising, is their compliance with extant RBI foreign exchange regulations, pricing guidelines, and the Companies Act 2013. Keeping up with these requirements can be time-consuming for even seasoned lawyers, and we can only imagine how difficult it would be for startups. Startups spend their initial years focusing on fund-raising, marketing, minimum viable products, and scaling their businesses. Legal advice does not usually factor in as a necessity. Our firm aims to help startups even before they get off the ground, and through their initial years of growth. We wanted to be the ones bringing in that change in the legal sector, and we hope to help many more such startups in the future.
In your opinion, are there any specific India-related problems that corporate/ commercial firms face as far as the company laws are concerned? Is there scope for improvement on this front?
The Indian legal system which corporate/commercial firms deal with is a living breathing organism, evolving each year. Due to this evolving nature, we lawyers are always on our toes.From a minor amendment to the Companies Act to the overhaul of the foreign exchange regime by the Reserve Bank of India, each of these changes affect the compliance and regulatory regime of corporates. For instance, when India changed the investment route for countries sharing land border with India,whereby any country sharing land border with India including Hong Kong cannot invest in India without approval of the RBI in consultation with the central government,it impacted a lot of ongoing transactions and we as lawyers had to be the first ones to inform our clients about such a change in the country’s foreign investment policy. In my opinion, there is huge scope of improvement in legal regime in India, I think a stable regulatory and tax regime is the need for the hour so far as the Indian system is concerned. The biggest example of such a market with stable regulatory and tax regime is Singapore, and we must work towards emulating the same.
Your boutique law firm has offices in three different cities — Delhi NCR, Mumbai and Bangalore. Have the Covid-induced restrictions such as WFH affected your firm’s operations? How has your firm adapted to the professional challenges imposed by the pandemic-related lifestyle changes?
We have offices in New Delhi NCR and Mumbai, and our main office is in Bangalore. Before the pandemic, our work schedule involved a fair bit of travelling across these cities. But post the lockdowns we shifted to a hybrid model, and unless absolutely necessary, we usually work from home.
In relation to the professional challenges during the pandemic, I think it was a difficult time for most young professionals. We do acknowledge the fact that our firm survived the pandemic. Our work as lawyers/ law firms also involves client outreach and getting new clients, which was difficult during the lockdowns. We expanded our client outreach through digital means and by conducting webinars, including one with King’s College London on International Treaty Arbitration. Further, we also focused on client outreach and knowledge management during the pandemic to educate and create legal awareness among our clients.
‘It’s a myth that good legal advice comes at prohibitive costs. A lot of heartburn can be avoided if documents are entered into with proper legal advice and with due negotiations.’ – Archana Balasubramanian
Archana Balasubramanian is the founding partner of Agama Law Associates, a Mumbai-based corporate law firm which she started in 2014. She specialises in general corporate commercial transaction and advisory as well as deep sectoral expertise across manufacturing, logistics, media, pharmaceuticals, financial services, shipping, real estate, technology, engineering, infrastructure and health.
August 13, 2021:
Lawyers see companies ill-prepared for conflict, often, in India. When large corporates take a remedial instead of mitigative approach to legal issues – an approach utterly incoherent to both their size and the compliance ecosystem in their sector – it is there where the concept of costs on legal becomes problematic. Pre-dispute management strategy is much more rationalized on the business’ pocket than the costs of going in the red on conflict and compliances.
Corporates often focus on business and let go of backend maintenance of paperwork, raising issues as and when they arise and resolving conflicts / client queries in a manner that will promote dispute avoidance.
Corporate risk and compliance management is yet another elephant in India, which in addition to commercial disputes can be a drain on a company’s resources. It can be clubbed under four major heads – labour, industrial, financial and corporate laws. There are around 20 Central Acts and then specific state-laws by which corporates are governed under these four categories.
Risk and compliance management is also significantly dependent on the sector, size, scale and nature of the business and the activities being carried out.
The woes of a large number of promoters from the ecommerce ecosystem are to do with streamlining systems to navigate legal. India has certain heavily regulated sectors and, like I mentioned earlier, an intricate web of corporate risk and compliance legislation that can result in prohibitive costs in the remedial phase. To tackle the web in the preventive or mitigative phase, start-ups end up lacking the arsenal due to sheer intimidation from legal. Promoters face sectoral risks in sectors which are heavily regulated, risks of heavy penalties and fines under company law or foreign exchange laws, if fund raise is not done in a compliant manner.
It is a myth that good legal advice comes at prohibitive costs. Promoters are quick to sign on the dotted line and approach lawyers with a tick the box approach. A lot of heartburn can be avoided if documents are entered into with proper legal advice and with due negotiations.
Investment contracts, large celebrity endorsement contracts and CXO contracts are some key areas where legal advice should be obtained. Online contracts is also emerging as an important area of concern.
When we talk of scope, arbitration is pretty much a default mechanism at this stage for adjudicating commercial disputes in India, especially given the fixation of timelines for closure of arbitration proceedings in India. The autonomy it allows the parties in dispute to pick a neutral and flexible forum for resolution is substantial. Lower courts being what they are in India, arbitration emerges as the only viable mode of dispute resolution in the Indian commercial context.
The arbitrability of disputes has evolved significantly in the last 10 years. The courts are essentially pro-arbitration when it comes to judging the arbitrability of subject matter and sending matters to arbitration quickly.
The Supreme Court’s ruling in the Vidya Drolia case has significantly clarified the position in respect of tenancy disputes, frauds and consumer disputes. It reflects upon the progressive approach of the court and aims to enable an efficient, autonomous and effective arbitration environment in India.
Law firms stand for ensuring that the law works for business and not against it. Whatever the scope of our mandate, the bottom line is to ensure a risk-free, conflict-free, compliant and prepared enterprise for our client, in a manner that does not intimidate the client or bog them down, regardless of the intricacy of the legal and regulatory web it takes to navigate to get to that end result. Lawyers need to dissect the business of law from the work.
This really involves meticulous, detail-oriented, sheer hard work on the facts, figures, dates and all other countless coordinates of each mandate, repetitively and even to a, so-called, “dull” routine rhythm – with consistent single-mindedness and unflinching resolve.
As a firm, multiply that effort into volumes, most of it against-the-clock given the compliance heavy ecosystem often riddled with uncertainties in a number of jurisdictions. So the same meticulous streamlining of mandate deliverables has to be extrapolated by the management of the firm to the junior most staff.
Further, the process of streamlining itself has to be more dynamic than ever now given the pace at which the new economy, tech-ecosystem, business climate as well as business development processes turn a new leaf.
Finally, but above all, we need to find a way to feel happy, positive and energized together as a team while chasing all of the aforesaid dreams. The competitive timelines and volumes at which a law firm works, this too is a real challenge. But we are happy to face it and evolve as we grow.
We always as a firm operated on the work from anywhere principle. We believed in it and inculcated this through document management processes to the last trainee. This helped us shut shop one day and continue from wherever we are operating.
The team has been regularly meeting online (at least once a day). We have been able to channel the time spent in travelling to and attending meetings in developing our internal knowledge banks further, streamline our processes, and work on integrating various tech to make the practice more cost-effective for our clients.
Right to Disclosure – Importance & Challenges in Criminal Justice System – By Manu Sharma
Personal liberty is the most cherished value of human life which thrives on the anvil of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India (“the Constitution”). Once a person is named an accused, he faces the spectre of deprivation of his personal liberty and criminal trial. This threat is balanced by Constitutional safeguards which mandate adherence to the rule of law by the investigating agencies as well as the Court. Thus, any procedure which seeks to impinge on personal liberty must also be fair and reasonable. The right to life and personal liberty enshrined under article 21 of the Constitution, expanded in scope post Maneka Gandhi[1], yields the right to a fair trial and fair investigation. Fairness demands disclosure of anything relevant that may be of benefit to an accused. Further, the all-pervading principles of natural justice envisage the right to a fair hearing, which entails the right to a full defence. The right to a fair defence stems from full disclosure. Therefore, the right of an accused to disclosure emanates from this Constitutional philosophy embellished by the principles of natural justice and is codified under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (“Code”).
Under English jurisprudence, the duty of disclosure is delineated in the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act, 1996, which provides that the prosecutor must disclose to the accused any prosecution material which has not previously been disclosed to the accused and which might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the case for the prosecution against the accused or of assisting the case for the accused, except if such disclosure undermines public interest.[2] Fairness ordinarily requires that any material held by the prosecution which weakens its case or strengthens that of the defendant, if not relied on as part of its formal case against the defendant, should be disclosed to the defence.[3] The duty of disclosure under common law contemplates disclosure of anything which might assist the defence[4], even if such material was not to be used as evidence[5]. Under Indian criminal jurisprudence, which has borrowed liberally from common law, the duty of disclosure is embodied in sections 170(2), 173, 207 and 208 of the Code, which entail the forwarding of material to the Court and supply of copies thereof to the accused, subject to statutory exceptions.
II. Challenges in Enforcement
The right to disclosure is a salient feature of criminal justice, but its provenance and significance appear to be lost on the Indian criminal justice system. The woes of investigative bias and prosecutorial misconduct threaten to render this right otiose. That is not to say that the right of an accused to disclosure is indefeasible, as certain exceptions are cast in the Code itself, chief among them being public interest immunity under section 173(6). However, it is the mischief of the concept of ‘relied upon’ emerging from section 173(5) of the Code, which is wreaking havoc on the right to disclosure and is the central focus of this article. The rampant misuse of the words “on which the prosecution proposes to rely’ appearing in section 173(5) of the Code, to suppress material favourable to the accused or unfavourable to the prosecution in the garb of ‘un-relied documents’ has clogged criminal courts with avoidable litigation at the very nascent stage of supply of copies of documents under section 207 of the Code. The erosion of the right of an accused to disclosure through such subterfuge is exacerbated by the limited and restrictive validation of this right by criminal Courts. The dominant issues highlighted in the article, which stifle the right to disclosure are; tainted investigation, unscrupulous withholding of material beneficial to the accused by the prosecution, narrow interpretation by Courts of section 207 of the Code, and denial of the right to an accused to bring material on record in the pre-charge stage.
A. Tainted Investigation
Fair investigation is concomitant to the preservation of the right to fair disclosure and fair trial. It envisages collection of all material, irrespective of its inculpatory or exculpatory nature. However, investigation is often vitiated by the tendencies of overzealous investigating officers who detract from the ultimate objective of unearthing truth, with the aim of establishing guilt. Such proclivities result in collecting only incriminating material during investigation or ignoring the material favourable to the accused. This leads to suppression of material and scuttles the right of the accused to disclosure at the very inception. A tainted investigation leads to miscarriage of justice. Fortunately, the Courts are not bereft of power to supervise investigation and ensure that the right of an accused to fair disclosure remains protected. The Magistrate is conferred with wide amplitude of powers under section 156(3) of the Code to monitor investigation, and inheres all such powers which are incidental or implied to ensure proper investigation. This power can be exercised suo moto by the Magistrate at all stages of a criminal proceeding prior to the commencement of trial, so that an innocent person is not wrongly arraigned or a prima facie guilty person is not left out.[6]
B. Suppression of Material
Indian courts commonly witness that the prosecution is partisan while conducting the trial and is invariably driven by the lust for concluding in conviction. Such predisposition impels the prosecution to take advantage by selectively picking up words from the Code and excluding material favouring the accused or negating the prosecution case, with the aid of the concept of ‘relied upon’ within section 173(5) of the Code. However, the power of the prosecution to withhold material is not unbridled as the Constitutional mandate and statutory rights given to an accused place an implied obligation on the prosecution to make fair disclosure.[7] If the prosecution withholds vital evidence from the Court, it is liable to adverse inference flowing from section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (“Evidence Act). The prosecutor is expected to be guided by the Bar Council of India Rules which prescribe that an advocate appearing for the prosecution of a criminal trial shall so conduct the prosecution that it does not lead to conviction of the innocent. The suppression of material capable of establishment of the innocence of the accused shall be scrupulously avoided. [8]
C. Scope of S. 207
The scope of disclosure under section 207 has been the subject of fierce challenge in Indian Courts on account of the prosecution selectively supplying documents under the garb of ‘relied upon’ documents, to the prejudice of the defence of an accused. The earlier judicial trend had been to limit the supply of documents under section 207 of the Code to only those documents which were proposed to be relied upon by the prosecution. This view acquiesced the exclusion of documents which were seized during investigation, but not filed before the Court along with the charge sheet, rendering the right to disclosure a farce. This restrictive sweep fails to reconcile with the objective of a fair trial viz. discovery of truth. The scheme of the code discloses that Courts have been vested with extensive powers inter alia under sections 91, 156(3) and 311 to elicit the truth. Towards the same end, Courts are also empowered under Section 165 of the Evidence Act. Thus, the principle of harmonious construction warrants a more purposive interpretation of section 207 of the code. The Hon’ble Supreme Court expounded on the scope of Section 207 of the Code in the case of Manu Sharma[9] and held that documents submitted to the Magistrate under section 173(5) would deem to include the documents which have to be sent to the magistrate during the course of investigation under section 170(2). A document which has been obtained bona fide and has a bearing on the case of the prosecution should be disclosed to the accused and furnished to him to enable him to prepare a fair defence, particularly when non production or disclosure would affect administration of justice or prejudice the defence of the accused. It is not for the prosecution or the court to comprehend the prejudice that is likely to be caused to the accused. The perception of prejudice is for the accused to develop on reasonable basis.[10] Manu Sharma’s [supra] case has been relied upon in Sasikala [11] wherein it was held that the Court must concede a right to the accused to have access to the documents which were forwarded to the Court but not exhibited by the prosecution as they favoured the accused. These judgments seem more in consonance with the true spirit of fair disclosure and fair trial. However, despite such clear statements of law, courts are grappling with the judicial propensity of deviating from this expansive interpretation and regressing to the concept of relied upon. The same is evident from a recent pronouncement of the Delhi High Court where the ratios laid down in Manu Sharma & Sasikala [supra] were not followed by erroneously distinguishing from those cases.[12] Such “per incuriam” aberrations by High Court not only undermine the supremacy of the Apex Court, but also adversely impact the functioning of the district courts over which they exercise supervisory jurisdiction. Hopefully in future Judges shall be more circumspect and strictly follow the law declared by the Apex Court.
D. Pre-Charge Embargo
Another obstacle encountered in the enforcement of the right to disclosure is the earlier judicial approach to stave off production or consideration of any additional documents not filed alongwith the charge sheet at the pre-charge stage, as the right to file such material was available to the accused only upon the commencement of trial after framing of charge.[13] At the pre-charge stage, Court could not direct the prosecution to furnish copies of other documents[14] It was for the accused to do so during trial or at the time of entering his defence. However, the evolution of law has seen that at the stage of framing charge, Courts can rely upon the material which has been withheld by the prosecutor, even if such material is not part of the charge sheet, but is of such sterling quality demolishing the case of the prosecution.[15] Courts are not handicapped to consider relevant material at the stage of framing charge, which is not relied upon by the prosecution. It is no argument that the accused can ask for the documents withheld at the time of entering his defence.[16] The framing of charge is a serious matter in a criminal trial as it ordains an accused to face a long and arduous trial affecting his liberty. Therefore, the Court must have all relevant material before the stage of framing charge to ascertain if grave suspicion is made out or not. Full disclosure at the stage of section 207 of the code, which immediately precedes discharging or charging an accused, enables an accused to seek a discharge, if the documents, including those not relied upon by the prosecution, create an equally possible view in favour of the accused.[17] On the other hand, delaying the reception of documents postpones the vindication of the accused in an unworthy trial and causes injustice by subjecting him to the trauma of trial. There is no gainsaying that justice delayed is justice denied, therefore, such an approach ought not to receive judicial consent. A timely discharge also travels a long way in saving precious time of the judiciary, which is already overburdened by the burgeoning pendency of cases. Thus, delayed or piecemeal disclosure not only prejudices the defence of the accused, but also protracts the trial and occasions travesty of justice.
III. Duties of the stakeholders in criminal justice system
The foregoing analysis reveals that participation of the investigating agency, the prosecution and the Court is inextricably linked to the enforcement of the right to disclosure. The duties cast on these three stakeholders in the criminal justice system, are critical to the protection of this right. It is incumbent upon the investigating agencies to investigate cases fairly and to place on record all the material irrespective of its implication on the case of prosecution case. Investigation must be carried out with equal alacrity and fairness irrespective of status of accused or complainant.[18] An onerous duty is cast on the prosecution as an independent statutory officer, to conduct the trial with the objective of determination of truth and to ensure that material favourable to the defence is supplied to the accused. Ultimately, it is the overarching duty of the Court to ensure a fair trial towards the administration of justice for all parties. The principles of fair trial require the Court to strike a delicate balance between competing interests in a system of adversarial advocacy. Therefore, the court ought to exercise its power under section 156(3) of the Code to monitor investigation and ensure that all material, including that which enures to the benefit of the accused, is brought on record. Even at the stage of supply of copies of police report and documents under section 207 of the Code, it is the duty of the Court to give effect to the law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Manu Sharma (supra) and Sasikala (supra), and ensure that all such material is supplied to the accused irrespective of whether it is “relied upon” by the prosecution or not.
IV. Alternate Remedy
The conundrum of supply of copies under section 207 of the code abounds criminal trials. Fairness is an evolving concept. There is no doubt that disclosure of all material which goes to establish the innocence of an accused is the sine qua non of a fair trial.[19] Effort is evidently underway to expand the concept in alignment with English jurisprudence. In the meanwhile, does the right of an accused to disclosure have another limb to stand on? Section 91 of the Code comes to the rescue of an accused, which confers wide discretionary powers on the Court, independent of section 173 of the Code, to summon the production of things or documents, relevant for the just adjudication of the case. In case the Court is of the opinion that the prosecution has withheld vital, relevant and admissible evidence from the Court, it can legitimately use its power under section 91 of the Code to discover the truth and to do complete justice to the accused.[20]
V. Conclusion
A society’s progress and advancement are judged on many parameters, an important one among them being the manner in which it administers criminal justice. Conversely, the ironic sacrilege of the core virtues of criminal jurisprudence in the temples of justice evinces social decadence. The Indian legislature of the twenty first century has given birth to several draconian statutes which place iron shackles on personal liberty, evoking widespread fear of police abuses and malicious prosecution. These statutes not only entail presumptions which reverse the burden of proof, but also include impediments to the grant of bail. Thus, a very heavy burden to dislodge the prosecution case is imposed on the accused, rendering the right to disclosure of paramount importance. It is the duty of the Court to keep vigil over this Constitutional and statutory right conferred on an accused by repudiating any procedure which prejudices his defence. Notable advancement has been made by the Apex Court in interpreting section 207 of the Code in conformity with the Constitutional mandate, including the right to disclosure. Strict adherence to the afore-noted principles will go a long way in ensuring real and substantial justice. Any departure will not only lead to judicial anarchy, but also further diminish the already dwindling faith of the public in the justice delivery system.
**
Advocate Manu Sharma has been practising at the bar for over sixteen years. He specialises in Criminal Defence. Some of the high profile cases he has represented are – the 2G scam case for former Union minister A Raja; the Religare/Fortis case for Malvinder Singh; Peter Mukerjee in the P Chidambaram/ INX Media case; Devas Multimedia in ISRO corruption act case; Om Prakash Chautala in PMLA case; Aditya Talwar in the aviation scam case; Dilip Ray, former Coal Minister in one of the coal scam cases; Suhaib Illyasi case.
**
Disclaimer: The views or opinions expressed are solely of the author.
[1] Maneka Gandhi and Another v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248
[2] S. 3 of the Criminal Procedure and Investigations Act, 1996
[3] R v. H and R v. C, 2004 (1) ALL ER 1269
[4] R v. Ward (Judith), (1993) 1 WLR 619 : (1993) 2 ALL ER 577 (CA)
[5] R v. Preston, (1994) 2 AC 130 : (1993) 3 WLR 891 : (1993) 4 ALL ER 638 (HL), R v. Stinchcome,
(1991), 68 C.C.C. (3d) 1 (S.C.C.)
[6] Vinubhai Haribhai Malaviya and Others v. State of Gujarat and Another, 2019 SCC Online SC 1346
[7] Sidhartha Vashishth alias Manu Sharma v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2010) 6 SCC 1
[8] R. 16, part II, Ch. VI of the Bar Council of India Rules
[9] Manu Sharma, (2010) 6 SCC 1
[10] V.K. Sasikala v. State, (2012) 9 SCC 771 : AIR 2013 SC 613
[11] Sasikala, (2012) 9 SCC 771 : AIR 2013 SC 613
[12] Sala Gupta and Another v. Directorate of Enforcement, (2019) 262 DLT 661
[13] State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi¸(2005) 1 SCC 568
[14] Dharambir v. Central Bureau of Investigation, ILR (2008) 2 Del 842 : (2008) 148 DLT 289
[15] Nitya Dharmananda alias K. Lenin and Another v. Gopal Sheelum Reddy, (2018) 2 SCC 93
[16] Neelesh Jain v. State of Rajasthan, 2006 Cri LJ 2151
[17] Dilwar Balu Kurane v. State of Maharashtra, (2002) 2 SCC 135, Yogesh alias Sachin Jagdish Joshi v. State of Maharashtra, (2008) 10 SCC 394
[18] Karan Singh v. State of Haryana, (2013) 12 SCC 529
[19] Kanwar Jagat Singh v. Directorate of Enforcement & Anr, (2007) 142 DLT 49
[20] Neelesh, 2006 Cri LJ 2151
Disclaimer: The views or opinions expressed are solely of the author.
Validity & Existence of an Arbitration Clause in an Unstamped Agreement
By Kunal Kumar
January 8, 2024
In a recent ruling, a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India in its judgment in re: Interplay between arbitration agreements under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996 and the Indian Stamp Act 1899, overruled the constitutional bench decision of the Supreme Court of India in N. N. Mercantile Private Limited v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. & Ors. and has settled the issue concerning the validity and existence of an arbitration clause in an unstamped agreement. (‘N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – III’)
Background to N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – III
One of the first instances concerning the issue of the validity of an unstamped agreement arose in the case of SMS Tea Estate Pvt. Ltd. v. Chandmari Tea Company Pvt. Ltd. In this case, the Hon’ble Apex Court held that if an instrument/document lacks proper stamping, the exercising Court must preclude itself from acting upon it, including the arbitration clause. It further emphasized that it is imperative for the Court to impound such documents/instruments and must accordingly adhere to the prescribed procedure outlined in the Indian Stamp Act 1899.
With the introduction of the 2015 Amendment, Section 11(6A) was inserted in the Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996 (A&C Act) which stated whilst appointing an arbitrator under the A&C Act, the Court must confine itself to the examination of the existence of an arbitration agreement.
In the case of M/s Duro Felguera S.A. v. M/s Gangavaram Port Limited, the Supreme Court of India made a noteworthy observation, affirming that the legislative intent behind the 2015 Amendment to the A&C Act was necessitated to minimise the Court's involvement during the stage of appointing an arbitrator and that the purpose embodied in Section 11(6A) of A&C Act, deserves due acknowledgement & respect.
In the case of Garware Wall Ropes Ltd. v. Cosatal Marine Constructions & Engineering Ltd., a divisional bench of the Apex Court reaffirmed its previous decision held in SMS Tea Estates (supra) and concluded that the inclusion of an arbitration clause in a contract assumes significance, emphasizing that the agreement transforms into a contract only when it holds legal enforceability. The Apex Court observed that an agreement fails to attain the status of a contract and would not be legally enforceable unless it bears the requisite stamp as mandated under the Indian Stamp Act 1899. Accordingly, the Court concluded that Section 11(6A) read in conjunction with Section 7(2) of the A&C Act and Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act 1872, clarified that the existence of an arbitration clause within an agreement is contingent on its legal enforceability and that the 2015 Amendment of the A&C Act to Section 11(6A) had not altered the principles laid out in SMS Tea Estates (supra).
Brief Factual Matrix – N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd.
Indo Unique Flame Ltd. (‘Indo Unique’) was awarded a contract for a coal beneficiation/washing project with Karnataka Power Corporation Ltd. (‘KPCL’). In the course of the project, Indo Unique entered into a subcontract in the form of a Work Order with N.N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. (‘N.N. Global’) for coal transportation, coal handling and loading. Subsequently, certain disputes arose with KPCL, leading to KPCL invoking Bank Guarantees of Indo Unique under the main contract, after which Indo Unique invoked the Bank Guarantee of N. N. Global as supplied under the Work Order.
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Subsequently, N.N. Global initiated legal proceedings against the cashing of the Bank Guarantee in a Commercial Court. In response thereto, Indo Unique moved an application under Section 8 of the A&C Act, requesting that the Parties to the dispute be referred for arbitration. The Commercial Court dismissed the Section 8 application, citing the unstamped status of the Work Order as one of the grounds. Dissatisfied with the Commercial Court's decision on 18 January 2018, Indo Unique filed a Writ Petition before the High Court of Bombay seeking that the Order passed by the Commercial Court be quashed or set aside. The Hon’ble Bombay High Court on 30 September 2020 allowed the Writ Petition filed by Indo Unique, aggrieved by which, N.N. Global filed a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court of India.
N. N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – I
The issue in the matter of M/s N.N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Indo Unqiue Flame Ltd. & Ors. came up before a three-bench of the Supreme Court of India i.e. in a situation when an underlying contract is not stamped or is insufficiently stamped, as required under the Indian Stamp Act 1899, would that also render the arbitration clause as non-existent and/or unenforceable (‘N.N. Global Mercantile Pvt. Ltd. v. Indo Flame Ltd. – I’).
The Hon’ble Supreme Court of India whilst emphasizing the 'Doctrine of Separability' of an arbitration agreement held that the non-payment of stamp duty on the commercial contract would not invalidate, vitiate, or render the arbitration clause as unenforceable, because the arbitration agreement is considered an independent contract from the main contract, and the existence and/or validity of an arbitration clause is not conditional on the stamping of a contract. The Hon’ble Supreme Court further held that deficiency in stamp duty of a contract is a curable defect and that the deficiency in stamp duty on the work order, would not affect the validity and/or enforceability of the arbitration clause, thus applying the Doctrine of Separability. The arbitration agreement remains valid and enforceable even if the main contract, within which it is embedded, is not admissible in evidence owing to lack of stamping.
The Hon’ble Apex Court, however, considered it appropriate to refer the issue i.e. whether unstamped instrument/document, would also render an arbitration clause as non-existent, unenforceable, to a constitutional bench of five-bench of the Supreme Court.
N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – II
On 25 April 2023, a five-judge bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in the matter of N. N. Mercantile Private Limited v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. & Ors. held that (1) An unstamped instrument containing an arbitration agreement cannot be said to be a contract which is enforceable in law within the meaning of Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act 1872 and would be void under Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act 1872, (2) an unstamped instrument which is not a contract nor enforceable cannot be acted upon unless it is duly stamped, and would not otherwise exist in the eyes of the law, (3) the certified copy of the arbitration agreement produced before a Court, must clearly indicate the stamp duty paid on the instrument, (4) the Court exercising its power in appointing an arbitration under Section 11 of the A&C Act, is required to act in terms of Section 33 and Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act 1899 (N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – II).
N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – III
A seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India on 13 December 2023 in its recent judgment in re: Interplay between arbitration agreements under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act 1996 and the Indian Stamp Act 1899, (1) Agreements lacking proper stamping or inadequately stamped are deemed inadmissible as evidence under Section 35 of the Stamp Act. However, such agreements are not automatically rendered void or unenforceable ab initio; (2) non-stamping or insufficient stamping of a contract is a curable defect, (2) the issue of stamping is not subject to determination under Sections 8 or 11 of the A&C Act by a Court. The concerned Court is only required to assess the prima facie existence of the arbitration agreement, separate from concerns related to stamping, and (3) any objections pertaining to the stamping of the agreement would fall within the jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal. Accordingly, the decision in N. N. Global Mercantile (P) Ltd. v. Indo Unique Flame Ltd. – II and SMS Tea (supra) was overruled, by the seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.
Kunal is a qualified lawyer with more than nine years of experience and has completed his LL.M. in Dispute Resolution (specialisation in International Commercial Arbitration) from Straus Institute for Dispute Resolution, Pepperdine University, California.
Kunal currently has his own independent practice and specializes in commercial/construction arbitration as well as civil litigation. He has handled several matters relating to Civil Law and arbitrations (both domestic and international) and has appeared before the Supreme Court of India, High Court of Delhi, District Courts of Delhi and various other tribunals.
No Safe Harbour For Google On Trademark Infringement
By Mayank Grover & Pratibha Vyas
October 9, 2023
Innovation, patience, dedication and uniqueness culminate in establishing a distinct identity. A trademark aids in identifying the source and quality, shaping perceptions about the identity's essence. When values accompany a product or service's trademark, safeguarding against misuse and infringement becomes crucial. A recent pronouncement of a Division Bench of the Delhi High Court dated August 10, 2023 in Google LLC v. DRS Logistics (P) Ltd. & Ors. and Google India Private Limited v. DRS Logistics (P) Ltd. & Ors. directed that Google’s use of trademarks as keywords for its Google Ads Programme does amount to ‘use’ in advertising under the Trademarks Act and the benefit of safe harbour would not be available to Google if such keywords infringe on the concerned trademark.
Factual Background
Google LLC manages and operates the Google Search Engine and Ads Programme, while, Google India Private Limited is a subsidiary of Google that has been appointed as a non-exclusive reseller of the Ads Programme in India. The Respondents, DRS Logistics and Agarwal Packers and Movers Pvt. Ltd. are leading packaging, moving and logistics service providers in India.
On 22.12.2011, DRS filed a suit against Google and Just Dial Ltd. under provisions of the Trademarks Act, 1999 (‘TM Act’) inter alia seeking a permanent injunction against Google from permitting third parties from infringing, passing off etc. the relevant trademarks of DRS. The core of the dispute revolved around Google’s Ads Programme. DRS claimed that its trade name 'AGARWAL PACKERS AND MOVERS' is widely recognized and a 'well-known' trademark. Use of DRS’s trademark as a keyword diverts internet traffic from its website to that of its competitors and they were entitled to seek restraint against Google for permitting third parties who are not authorized to use the said trademark. DRS further argued that Google benefits from these trademark infringements. This practice involved charging a higher amount for displaying these ads, constituting an infringement of their trademarks. Whereas, Google contended that the use of the keyword in the Ads Programme does not amount to ‘use’ under the TM Act notwithstanding that the keyword is/or similar to a trademark. Thus, the use of a term as a keyword cannot be construed as an infringement of a trademark under the TM Act, and being an intermediary, it claimed a safe harbour under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. (‘IT Act’).
In essence, the dispute between the parties was rooted in DRS’s grievance concerning the Ads Programme. The Learned Single Judge vide judgment dated 30.10.2021interpreted relevant provisions of the TM Act and drew on multiple legal precedents to arrive at the decision that DRS can seek protection of its trademarks which were registered under Section 28 of the TM Act and issued directions to investigate complaints alleging the use of trademark and/or to ascertain whether a sponsored result has an effect of infringing a trademark or passing off.
Being aggrieved, Google LLC and Google Pvt. Ltd. filed appeals before the Division Bench. Google LLC argued that the Single Judge’s findings were erroneous and the directions issued were liable to be set aside. Google India claimed that it doesn’t control and operate the Search Engine and the Ads Programme making it unable to comply with the directions passed in the impugned judgment.
Analysis & Decision of Court
The Division Bench found Single Judge’s rationale for assessing trademark infringement through keywords and meta-tags valid. Meta-tags are a list of words/code in a website, not readily visible to the naked eye. It serves as a tool for indexing the website by a search engine. If a trademark of a third party is used as a meta-tag, the same would serve as identifying the website as relevant to the search query that includes the trademark as a search term. The use of keywords in the Ads Programme also serves similar purpose. The Division Bench was unable to accept that using a trademark as a keyword, even if not visible, would not be considered trademark use under the TM Act.
Google placed heavy reliance on the decisions rendered by Courts across jurisdictions of United Kingdom, United States of America, European Union, Australia, New Zealand, Russia, South Africa, Canada, Spain, Italy, Japan and China; in the cases of Google France SARL and Google Inc. v. Louis Vitton SA & Ors.[1], Interflora Inc. v. Marks & Spencer Plc.[2], and L’Oreal SA v. eBay International AG[3] in support of the contention that the use of trade marks is by the advertiser and not by Google. However, the Division Bench rejected Google’s passive role; highlighting its active involvement in recommending and promoting trademark keywords for higher clicks in its Ads Programme. Division Bench referred to a few judicial decisions rendered in the United States of America that captured the essence of the controversy for perspective, concluding that Google actively promotes and encourages trademarks associated with major goods and services, rather than having a passive role.
It was held that the contention that the use of trademarks as keywords, per se constitutes an infringement of the trademark is unmerited; the assumption that an internet user is merely searching the address of the proprietor of the trademark when he feeds in a search query that may contain a trademark, is erroneous.
The Doctrine of 'Initial Interest Confusion' addresses trademark infringement based on pre-purchase confusion. The doctrine is applied when meta-tags, keywords, or domain names cause initial confusion similar to a registered trademark. If users are misled to access unrelated websites, trademark use in internet advertising may be actionable and reliance was placed on US precedents. Referring to Section 29 of the TM Act, it was directed that Section 29 does not specify the duration for which the confusion lasts but, even if the confusion is for a short duration and an internet user is able to recover from the same, the trade mark would be infringed and would offend Section 29(2) of the TM Act.
It was held that the Ads Programme is a platform for displaying advertisements. Google, being an architect and operator of its own programme makes it an active participant in the use of trademarks and determining the advertisements displayed on search pages. Their use of proprietary software makes them utilize trademarks and control the distribution of information related to potentially infringing links, ultimately leading to revenue maximization. Hence, a substantial link exists between Google LLC and Google India, rendering it impossible for Google India to deny its role in operating the Ads Programme. It was further held that Google sells trademarks as keywords to advertisers and encourages users to use trademarks as keywords for ads. It is contradictory for Google to encourage trademark use while claiming data belongs to third parties for exemption. After 2004, Google changed policies to boost revenue and subsequently, introduced a tool that searches effective terms, including trademarks. Google's active involvement in its advertising business and online nature does not necessarily qualify it for benefits under Section 79 of the IT Act. The Division Bench agreed with the view of the Single Judge that Google would not be eligible for protection of safe harbour under Section 79(1) of the IT Act, if its alleged activities infringe trademarks.
Conclusion
This is a seminal decision governing (and rather, restricting) the operations of intermediaries and redefining the jurisprudence of safe harbour under the IT Act. The decision is well-reasoned and establishes a significant precedent for safeguarding trademarks by uniquely holding Google accountable under its Ads Programme. The same will prevent usage of tradenames as a third-party trademark in keyword search or metatags by advertisers on Google’s search engine. While keywords and meta-tags have different levels of visibility, their purpose is similar i.e. advertising and attracting internet traffic. The use of trademarks as meta-tags by a person who is neither a proprietor of the trademark nor permitted to use the same leads to confusion amongst public at large due to the automated processes of search engines and consequently, constitutes trademark infringement.
About the Authors: Mayank Grover is a Partner and Pratibha Vyas is an Associate at Seraphic Advisors, Advocates & Solicitors
[1] C-236/08 to C-238/08 (2010) [2011] All ER (EC) 41
[2] [2014] EWCA Civ 1403
[3] 2C- 324/09 (2010)
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