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In WPA 12132 of 2023 -CAL HC- J.L. Enterprises should pursue relief under GST statute rather than seeking recourse under Article 226, rules Calcutta High Court
Justice Bibek Chaudhuri [25-05-2023]

Read Order: J. L. Enterprises v. Assistant Commissioner, State Tax, Ballygunge Charge

 

Chahat Varma

 

New Delhi, June 8, 2023: The Calcutta High Court, in the case of recovery of GST, has held that sub-section 5 of Rule 159 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 grants sufficient power to the petitioner to file objections for the release of the bank account or in the instant case, cash-credit facility. The court noted that when there was a provision for efficacious relief within the statute itself, the petitioner should pursue such relief rather than seeking recourse under Article 226 of the Constitution.

 

J.L. Enterprises (petitioner) was a partnership firm. On 4th March, 2023, State Tax Department Officers visited the registered office of the said firm and inspected the books on accounts and verified records under Section 67 of West Bengal Goods and Services Tax Act and found some anomalies. The Assistant Commissioner, State Tax, issued a notice to the petitioner's banker to provisionally attach the cash-credit facility of the firm. In response, the petitioner filed a petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India challenging the order of provisional attachment.

 

The court noted that the Supreme Court in various rulings has held that the High Court will not ordinarily entertain a petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, if an effective remedy is available to the aggrieved person and that this Rule applies with greater rigour in matters involving recovery of public money and the dues of the bank and other financial institutions.

 

In light of the above observation, the court declined to provide relief under Article 226 in this case.

 

 

In W.P.(C) 7310/2023 -DEL HC- Delhi High Court rules disqualifying Haj Group Organizers for quota allotment unjust if they possess valid GST registration and can provide explanation for GST calculation and deposit
Justice Prathiba M. Singh [25-05-2023]

Read Order: Al Amanath Haj Services India Pvt. Ltd and Ors V. Union of India

 

Chahat Varma

 

New Delhi, June 8, 2023: The Delhi High Court has ruled that disqualifying Haj Group Organizers (HGOs) would be unjust as long as they possess a valid GST registration and can provide an explanation for the calculation and deposit of GST prior to filing the application for quota allotment.

 

These present petitions related to various HGOs and allotment of quota for Haj pilgrimage 2023. The Petitioners had submitted that there was no clarity regarding the amount of GST payable, because initially, the HGOs were claiming exemption for the Haj pilgrimage. However, this issue was settled by the Supreme Court in All India Haj Umrah Tour Organizer Association, Mumbai v. Union of India [LQ/SC/2022/902], wherein the Supreme Court had held that the exemptions granted to the Haj Committee would not be applicable to private HGOs.

 

It was pointed out by the counsels for the parties that there was another issue related to the extra-territorial operation of service tax, which was not adjudicated in the aforementioned Supreme Court judgment and remained open to be decided in appropriate proceedings. It is in view of this uncertainty that several of the HGOs which have been found to be ineligible have paid 18% GST on the margin amounts. On the other hand, entities which have been found to be eligible under the policy have paid GST @ 5% on the total turnover itself.

The bench of Justice Prathiba M. Singh examined the relevant clause in the 2023 Haj Policy and observed that GST registration and payment are mandatory for HGOs. However, any uncertainty regarding the amount of GST to be paid should be addressed by the GST authorities and opined that it cannot operate as a disqualification of the Petitioner HGOs.

 

In WPA 9168 OF 2021- CALC HC- Calcutta High Court allows higher pay scale & differential retrial benefits to Accountant appointed in school for handicapped in 1999 after his retirement, vis-a-vis equality clause of Article 14 since case of parity in pay scale was established
Justice Rabindranath Samanta [06-06-2023]

Read Order: Promit Kumar Choudhury v. State of West Bengal

 

 

Simran Singh

 

 

New Delhi, June 8, 2023- The Calcutta High Court has allowed the writ petition of an accountant in The Calcutta Deaf and Dumb School since 18-01-1999 who had sought higher pay scale which was rejected by the Director of Mass Education Extension, West Bengal (Director of MEE). The Bench set aside the impugned order passed by the Director of MEE and directed to re-fix the scale of pay of the petitioner at Rs. 1260-2610/- (unrevised) with effect from the date of his joining on 18-01-1999 and further re-fix his scale of pay at Rs. 4000-8850/- under West Bengal Services (Revision of Pay and Allowance) Rules, 1998[1]  (WBS-ROPA Rules) ROPA, within six (06) weeks from the date. After re-fixation of the scales of pay, the respondents were further directed to release the arrear pay to the petitioner, commensurate with his pay on re-fixation of the scales of pay with effect from 03.02.2017 also within six (06) weeks.

 

 

The Single-Judge Bench of Justice Rabindranath Samanta added that since the petitioner had retired from service, the respondents would issue revised pension payment order to him commensurate with his aforesaid re-fixed scale of pay immediately after re-fixation of his scale of pay and pay the differential retrial benefits to the petitioner on modified or revised Pension Payment Order (P.P.O) within (4) weeks from the date of issue of such P.P.O.

 

 

In the matter at hand, the petitioner had filed a representation before the Director of MEE seeking the scale of pay of Rs. 1260-2610/- (unrevised) corresponding to revised scale of pay of Rs. 4000-8850/-. Upon not receiving response to the representation made by him, he filed a writ petition which was disposed of by this Court directing the Director of MEE to decide his representation by a reasoned order, but the same was rejected by an order dated 27-02-2021 communicated vide memo dated 16-03-2021 without any reasonable classification.

 

 

The Petitioner was an accountant in ‘The Calcutta Deaf and Dumb School’ since 18-01-1999, however long after his his appointment, the petitioner came to know that in other similarly sponsored institutions under the Mass Education Extension Directorate, Government of West Bengal, the  incumbents holding the post of Accountants were fetching higher scale of pay of Rs. 4000-8850/-.

 

 

It was averred by the petitioner that the Directorate of MEE had made recommendation to the Department of Mass Education, Government of West Bengal that the incumbents holding the post of Head Clerk- cum-Cashier, Head Clerk-cum-Accountant in the sponsored handicapped institutions should be granted the scale of pay of Rs. 4000-8850/-. vide an office note dated 23-07-2001 and 13-04-2004 and vide memo dated 06-09-2005.

 

 

The Bench stated that the the petitioner had unequivocally showed and established that the post of Accountant held by him had the similarity or identity with the posts as above of the Sponsored Handicapped Educational Institutions under the control of the Directorate of MEE as well as the Mass Education Department, Government of West Bengal.

 

 

The Bench stated that the petitioner stood on the same footing as other accountants of Handicapped schools who were allowed a higher pay scale after succeeding in the petitions filed by them in the High Court. Thus, relying upon a catena of cases wherein it was held that once case for parity in pay scale was established, based on constitutional principles emanating from the equality clause incorporated in Article 14 of the Constitution of India, the decision of the State Government as reflected in the said memorandum dated 30-03-1999 could not survive and would amount to perpetuating an unconstitutional act. Thus, in such a scenario the reason assigned in the impugned order by the Director of MEE that he was not authorised to pass any order allowing higher scale of pay to the petitioner was not acceptable since such reasons affront the doctrine of equality under Article 14 of the Constitution.

 

In view thereof, the impugned order passed by the the Director of MEE communicated vide memo dated 16-03-2021 was vitiated with illegality and the order was liable to be set aside and the petitioner was entitled to get pay as per the pay scale of Rs. 1260-2610/- (unrevised) instead of the scale of Pay of Rs.1040 -1920/-. After the WBS-ROPA Rules came into force, he was entitled to get his pay re-fixed at the scale of pay of Rs. 4000-8850/-.

 

 

The Bench while dealing with the question as to recovery of arrear pay, the Supreme Court in the case of Union of India v. Tarsem Singh had held that insofar as the consequential relief of recovery of arrears for a past period was concerned, the principles relating to recurring/successive wrongs would apply. As a consequence, the High Courts would restrict the consequential relief relating to arrears normally to a period of 3 years prior to the date of filing of the writ petition. The petitioner was entitled to get arrear pay commensurate with his pay on re-fixation of pay with effect from 03.02.2020.

In FAO Nos.1803 & 1782 of 2016-PUNJ HC- P&H HC upholds MACT’s decision of not awarding compensation under the head of ‘pain and suffering’  in view of Top Court’s ruling that no amount would be awarded to dependants under such head in case of instantaneous death
Justice Harpreet Singh Brar [06-06-2023]

Read Order: New India Assurance Company Ltd. Versus Raj Rani alias Vidhu Singla and others


 

Tulip Kanth

 

Chandigarh, June 8, 2023: While enhancing the compensation from Rs 11.81 lakh to Rs Rs 19.89 lakh in a motor accident case, the Punjab and Haryana High Court has dismissed the appeals filed by the insurance company while allowing the appeals filed by the claimants.

 

“No compensation has been granted by the learned Tribunal under the head of pain and suffering and loss of love and affection. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that no amount would be awarded to the dependants of the deceased under the head of ‘pain and suffering’ in the case of instantaneous death”, the Single-Judge Bench of Justice Harpreet Singh Brar held.

 

The appeals had been filed by the Insurance Company for setting aside the Tribunal’s award and by the claimants for enhancement of compensation awarded by the Tribunal.

 

The facts of the case were such that the deceased Bal Krishan was coming back from Ludhiana in a car which was being followed by Rajinder Kumar in another car. When the said car in which the deceased was travelling, reached main Barnala-Raikot road near bus stand of, a trolley overloaded with sand was wrongly parked in the middle of the road leading towards village Mahalkalan without any reflectors on it. The car struck against the said trolley at the back and got entangled thereunder. 

 

As a result of the impact, the occupants of the car received multiple injuries. On seeing the accident, Rajinder Kumar with the help of others pulled out the swift car from beneath the trolley and found that Bal Krishan who had been seriously injured, as rushed to Civil Hospital, Barnala in an ambulance but he died on the way.

 

The Tribunal awarded an amount of Rs 11,81,000 each to the claimant/respondents in their respective claim petitions along with interest at the rate of 9% p.a. from the date of filing of the claim petitions till actual realisation.

 

It was the case of the Insurance Company that the  accident took place due to the negligence on account of wrong parking of the tractor trolley (offending vehicle) in the middle of the road but the Tribunal has failed to appreciate that the FIR was lodged only against the driver of the tractor trolley and the driver of the car had not been impleaded as a party respondent. 

 

The claimants contended that the Tribunal has assessed the income of the deceased as Rs 12,000  per month by completely ignoring the income tax returns for the year 2012-2013. The Tribunal had also erred in applying the multiplier of 11, whereas the multiplier of 13 should have been applied as the age of the deceased was duly proved by producing his PAN Card to be 50 years.

 

On the argument that the driver of the car was not having a valid driving licence on the date of accident, the Bench opined that the same had been dealt with by the Tribunal by placing reliance upon the testimony of Kunal Arora and also by relying on the decision of this Court in New India Assurance Company Ltd. vs. Shanti Devi and others wherein it has been held that when fatal motor accident was caused due to rash and negligent driving of truck and the driver of the truck had a fake and invalid licence, the Insurance Company cannot be absolved from its liability to indemnify the insured on account of an invalid or fake driving licence because the insurance company has not led any evidence to prove that the insured was guilty of any negligence and regarding use of vehicles by a duly licensed driver.

 

The Bench was of the opinion that the income assessed by the Tribunal with regard to both the deceased at Rs 12,000  per month was correct and the finding of the Tribunal in this regard was affirmed. 

 

Further, keeping in view the age of the deceased to be 50 years, future prospects of 25% were awarded in respect of both the deceased, in view of National Insurance Company vs. Pranay Sethi and in light of the decision of Smt.Sarla Verma and others vs. Delhi Transport Corporation and another  a deduction of 1/4th had to be made in both the cases and a multiplier of ‘13’ would be applicable.

 

Relying on the precedent that no amount would be awarded to the dependants of the deceased under the head of ‘pain and suffering’ in the case of instantaneous death”, the Bench confirmed the findings of the Tribunal in this regard.

 

Thus, the Bench directed the company to make the payment within 2 months.

 

In C.S. (COMM )922 OF 2017- MADR HC- Madras High Court permanently injuncts Doordarshan Kendra Director from making payment of Royalty amount of film ‘Elangeswaran’ to anyone except exclusive copyright holder of its television telecasting rights
Justice S. Sounthar [06-06-2023]

Read Order: N. Ravi v. Director Doordarshan Kendra Swami Sivananda Salai

 

 

Simran Singh

 

 

New Delhi, June 8, 2023: The Madras High Court has declared N. Ravi (plaintiff) as the exclusive copyright holder of Television Telecasting Rights of the Tamil movie ‘Elangeswaran’ -- starring M.R. Rajesh, Revathi and K.R.Vijaya and directed by T.R. Ramanna -- which the Director of Doordarshan Kendra, Swami Sivananda Salai (defendant), without the knowledge of the plaintiff, telecasted on 20.12.2014. Further, the defendant was restrained from making payment of royalty amount for having telecasted the film to any person except the plaintiff.

 

 

The suit was decreed in respect of a prayer for declaration and permanent injunction and accordingly the defendants were directed to pay the costs of the suit to the plaintiff.

 

 

The Single-Judge Bench of Justice S. Sounthar stated that “the plaintiff herein succeeded in proving flow of right in his favour from original producer Sivakami Productions. However, the documents produced by the defendants do not link the flow of rights from original producer of the film to the 2nd defendant”.

 

 

It was the case of the plaintiff that the Tamil film titled 'Elangeswaran' was produced by M/s.Sri Sivakami Productions. The original producer assigned the Television Telecasting Rights in favour of M/s.Sridhar Films on 20.12.1989 under Ex.P2 on receipt of royalty amount of Rs.3,000/-. They in turn assigned television telecasting rights in favour one K.Palani for a consideration of Rs.15,000/- on 18.05.1995 under Ex.P3 who in turn assigned the rights in favour of one Mrs. K.Indira Devi for a consideration of Rs.30,000/- on 24.05.1995 under Ex.P4. The plaintiff got assignment of television telecasting rights in the above said film from the said Mrs. K.Indira Devi on 17.03.2011 under Ex.P7 for a consideration of Rs.30,000/-. Thus, the plaintiff claimed copyright over the television telecasting rights in the Tamil film 'Elangeswaran'.

 

 

The plaintiff further contended that the 1st defendant by fraudulently obtaining the software of the film 'Elangeswaran' from unknown sources, telecasted it on 20.12.2014 without the consent and knowledge of the plaintiff. Immediately, the plaintiff sent a letter to the 1st defendant informing them about his rights over the telecasting rights of the film and called upon them to stop the payment of royalty amount to any other person. Upon not receiving any reply from the 1st defendant, the plaintiff issued a legal notice on 01.10.2015 to make the payment of royalty amount to the plaintiff and the 1st defendant was also informed that in case of its default to pay, action would be taken against it for infringement of copyrights. Inspite of several notices and letters, the 1st defendant failed to comply with the lawful request made by the plaintiff and hence, the present plaint.

 

 

The Bench stated that according to Section 19 (1) of the Copyrights Act, 1957 the assignment of copyright should be in writing. Hence, upon pursuing  Exs. P2, P3, P4 and P7, the Court stated that it indicated the flow of right in favour of plaintiff from the original producer namely Sivakami Productions.

 

 

The Court further noted that the defendants had averred that the original producer Sivakami Productions had assigned the copyrights of the film in favour of one A.Ganesan of M/s Shyamala Movies by a letter dated 27.09.1990  under Ex. D3. It was stated that the Ex.D3 was subsequent to Ex.P2 and consequently, the alleged transfer pleaded by the defendants subsequent to the transfer in favour of plaintiff's predecessor was not valid in the eyes of law. The defendants had not produced any documents to show that A.Ganesan of M/s Shyamala Movies assigned the rights in favour of V.Balu, who had assigned the rights in favour of N. Govindarajan on 17.03.2014 who submitted the film for telecast to the 1st defendant.

 

The Bench stated that the in the absence of valid assignment deed to link the transfer in favour of V.Balu, the defendants would not acquire any valid television rights in the film 'Elangeswaran'. Thus the Court was of the view that the plaintiff succeeded in proving flow of right in his favour from original producer Sivakami Productions. However, the documents produced by the defendants do not link the flow of rights from original producer of the film to the 2nd defendant.

 

 

Further, the Court stated that the first document relied on by the defendants namely the alleged letter written by Sivakami Productions in favour of A.Ganesan of M/s Shyamala Movies dated 27.09.1990 was subsequent to the earliest document relied by the plaintiff namely Ex.P2 dated 20.12.1989. Therefore, this Court comes to the definite conclusion that Sivakami Productions validly assigned television rights in favour of Sridhar films and hence, the plaintiff was declared as the exclusive copyright holder of Television Telecasting's Rights in Tamil pictures titled ‘Elangeswaran’.

In W.P. Nos. 16075 of 2023 -MADR HC- Madras High Court dismisses writ petition filed by Tvl. Sri Maharaja Industries against Assistant Commissioner (ST), holds sufficient opportunity given to petitioner
Justice R. N. Manjula [24-05-2023]

Read Order: Tvl. Sri Maharaja Industries v. The Assistant Commissioner (ST) (FAC)

 

Chahat Varma

 

New Delhi, June 8, 2023: The Madras High Court has dismissed the writ petition filed by Tvl. Sri Maharaja Industries against the Assistant Commissioner (ST), holding that this was not a fit case which should be considered for lack of opportunity in compliance of the principles of natural justice, as sufficient opportunity was given to the petitioner.

 

These present writ petitions were filed seeking to call for the records on the file of the Assistant Commissioner (ST) and quash the same as being contrary to the principles of natural justice, without jurisdiction and authority of law. The only grievance of the petitioner was that principle of natural justice was not followed before passing the impugned order and no opportunity of personal hearing was granted.

 

The single judge bench of Justice R. N. Manjula noted that in the impugned order dated 02.12.2022, the notice had been given to the petitioner and the petitioner had also submitted his reply and thereafter enquiry had been conducted. The request of the dealer was seen to be not capable for consideration and that finding was recorded after considering the materials produced by the petitioner.

 

The court also stated that even if the petitioner was aggrieved by any omission committed by the respondent authority, there was an alternative remedy available to challenge the impugned orders through revision/appeal before the competent authority.

In ITA. No.7872/MUM/2019 - ITAT - Special Bench of ITAT (Mumbai) rules 'Other Method' as Most Appropriate Method for determining ALP of international transaction of purchase of bundle of sport broadcasting rights by Star India; Directs appeal to Division Bench for determination of ALP of international transaction using 'Other Method'
Members Prashant Maharishi (Accountant), Aby T. Varkey (Judicial) & R.S. Syal (Vice President) [05-06-2023]

Read Order: Star India Private Limited v. ACIT-16(1), Mumbai

 

Chahat Varma

 

New Delhi, June 7, 2023: In a significant ruling, the Special Bench Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (Mumbai) has ruled that the Most Appropriate Method (MAM) to determine the Arm's Length Price (ALP) of international transaction of `Purchase of Bundle of Sport Broadcasting Rights’ by Star India Private Limited. (assessee), was the 'Other Method' rather than the 'CUP Method'. As no arguments were presented regarding the application of the 'Other Method' and due to the deficiencies in the valuation report, the bench decided to refer the appeal to the Division Bench for further consideration on the determination of the ALP using the 'Other Method'.


In the present case, the Special Bench was constituted by the Hon'ble President under Section 255(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for the assessment year in question. The Division Bench referred the case to the Special Bench as it was unable to concur with the view taken by the predecessor Bench in the assessee's case for the preceding assessment year regarding the benchmarking of the international transaction of `Purchase of Bundle of Sport Broadcasting Rights’.

 

Briefly stated, Star India Private Limited (assessee) had filed Form No.3CEB containing a list of international transactions, including, payment of Rs. 3075,24,15,714/- for acquiring Bundle of Sport Broadcasting Rights (BSB Rights) hitherto held by its US based Associated Enterprise (AE), namely, ESPN Star Sports Ltd. (ESS). The transaction of acquiring the BSB Rights (rights to broadcast through television/internet/mobile various sports events like ICC Tournaments including Cricket World cup, Champions League T20 cricket, Formula-1 GP2 and Wimbledon Championships etc.) from ESS was concluded for 1211 USD million by means of Master Rights Agreement (MRA) entered on 31-10-2013. The assessee claimed deduction of Rs.1013.26 crore. It applied the CUP method for demonstrating that the international transaction of acquiring the BSB Rights was at ALP.

 

The bench in the case observed that there was a lack of evidence to support the existence of a price charged by independent parties in a comparable uncontrolled transaction under similar circumstances. They emphasized that there was no evidence available of any independent party purchasing identical or similar sports broadcasting rights at the same time. Due to the absence of comparable uncontrolled transaction prices, the bench held that the CUP method was not the most appropriate method to determine the arm's length price in this case.

 

Further, the assessee had accepted the responsibility and liability of ESS for payment to various sports bodies, which were previously agreed upon by ESS. This was done through a novation agreement and sub-license arrangement. The bench noted that the prices agreed upon by ESS with the sports bodies did not reflect contemporaneous market factors prevailing on 31.10.2013. Due to this lack of contemporaneousness and the change in market conditions, the bench opined that the CUP method could not be considered the most appropriate method in this case.

 

The bench also observed that the transfer of a Bundle of sports broadcasting rights took place according to the MRA. The bench acknowledged that these rights constituted a unique intangible asset. In such cases, the bench held that the use of the Other Method became even more appropriate as it allows for the valuation of these rights at different points in time, taking into account changes in economic conditions and market situations, as also opined by experts.

In CR-3584-2023-PUNJ HC- P&H HC dismisses revision petition of tenant against whom eviction order was passed as he intended to drag matter from one Court to another & take advantage of technicalities
Justice Jagmohan Bansal [06-07-2023]

Read Order: KAMALJIT THAKUR Vs. MANOHAR SINGH GUJRAL 

 

Tulip Kanth

 

Chandigarh, June 8, 2023: While considering the fact that the tenant only wanted to drag the matter from one Court to another, the Punjab and Haryana High Court has dismissed his revision petition  whereby he sought setting aside of order vacating the grant of conditional stay on the order of eviction.

 

“He wants to drag the matter from one Court to another Court and take advantage of technicalities”,  Justice Jagmohan Bansal asserted.


 

The case of the petitioner was that petitioner had been the tenant and the rent deed was executed through General Power of Attorney-Gurbachan Kaur vide lease deed. When she passed away, her husband started collecting rent from the petitioner. The husband filed eviction petition against the petitioner on account of non-payment of rent. The Rent Controller refused to assess provisional rent after noticing the fact that there was no relationship of landlord and tenant between the parties.

 

The respondent’s appeal was allowed by the Appellate Authority and the Rent Controller was directed to assess the provisional rent. The Rent Controller passed a fresh order whereby provisional rent was determined and petitioner was directed to deposit rent. The petitioner failed to deposit provisional rent and accordingly the Rent Controller passed an order of eviction.

 

The petitioner feeling aggrieved preferred an appeal before the Appellate Court which stayed the operation of eviction order subject to payment of arrears of rent @ Rs 26,804 per month w.e.f September, 2019. The petitioner did not deposit arrears of rent and Appellate Court vacated the order whereby the Controller’s Order was stayed.

 

The Bench noted that the petitioner is admittedly a tenant of the premises and he is not owner of the premises. He is not paying rent since September, 2019.

 

The petitioner by acquiescing to order dated 27.05.2022 passed by the Appellate Court and thereafter order dated 29.10.2022 passed by Rent Controller is precluded from impugning the order dated 21.04.2023 whereby interim order passed by Appellate Court has been vacated”, the Bench said.

 

It was noticed by the Bench that the petitioner at the first instance did not challenge order whereby stay was granted and at this stage when stay had been vacated, he had opted to file the petition in question assailing earlier orders.

 

Thus, the Bench dismissed the revision petition.

 

In W.P. (C) 5361 of 2023- DEL HC- Delhi High Court grants relief to 2-time National Champion of dressage competition against Equestrian Federation of India that had “shirked away” from its responsibility of providing adequate financial support to him to participate in the 19th Asian Games to be held in China in September 2023
Justice Țara Vitasta Ganju [06-06-2023]

Read Order: Gaurav Pundir v Equestrian Federation of India

 

 

Simran Singh

 

 

New Delhi, June 7, 2023: The Delhi High Court has granted interim relief to National Champion of dressage competition Gaurav Pundir who had impugned the acts of the Equestrian Federation of India (respondent) for seeking to foist the responsibility of funding, training and participation on the petitioner even though the Federation bears the onus and responsibility to facilitate and fund the athletes/riders to successfully compete in the events in Europe prior to their participation in the Asian Games.

 

 

The Single-Judge Bench of Justice Țara Vitasta Ganju stated that the respondent/federation had shirked away from its responsibility of providing adequate financial support to deserving athletes/riders such as the petitioner and on the other hand was taking all steps to ensure that the petitioner was not even able to participate in the trials/events scheduled for the selection of the national team.

 

 

The Court was of the opinion that prima facie, the petitioner had appeared to have qualified for the Minimum Eligibility Requirement (MER) under criteria V5 during his training in India as per the score-sheet and given the fact that the respondent/federation had introduced the Trial Events by emails dated 15.04.2023 and 17.04.2023, it was necessary to pass directions to the respondent/federation to bear the Trial Event fee for two of the three events scheduled in Europe.

 

In the matter at hand, the petition challenged the Minutes of Meeting dated 20.02.2023 held between the office bearers of the respondents/federation and members of the Committee of Experts, in so far it sought to draw an artificial distinction in the disciplines of Eventing and Dressage qua funding of the participants. Further, an email dated 17.04.2023 was also challenged which set out the schedule for participation of the ‘Probables’ selected for the discipline of Dressage for the 19th Asian Games which were going to be held at Hangzhou, China from 23.09.2023 to 08.10.2023 (Asian Games). Directions had also been sought for funding on an urgent basis for leasing of an alternative horse and training of the petitioner in Europe.

 

 

The petitioner had impugned the acts of respondent/federation wherein, they had sought to foist the responsibility of funding, training and participation on the petitioner. The petitioner had, also prayed to direct the respondent/federation to consider the route of petitioner's horse 'Escobar' through the United States of America. The Petitioner contended that despite being the National Champion in the specialised field of Dressage for the past 2 consecutive years, he was actively being denied the logistical and financial wherewithal to appear in the selection process for the upcoming Asian Games. The petitioner submitted that he had qualified in the selection trials held by the respondent/federation under both the Selection Criteria Version- III as well as Selection Criteria Version-V (Criteria V3 and Criteria V5).’

 

 

During the pendency of this petition, the petitioner had approached this Court seeking ad-interim urgent relief by way of an Application stating to direct the respondents to include the applicant in the long list of probable players to be submitted to International Olympic Association. Further to direct the respondents to permit the applicant to participate in the trials schedules for 15.06.2023 to 18.06.2023 at Austria, as if the same were his 1st trial for the purposes of eligibility in terms of the email dated 17.04.2023. Further direct the respondent federation to consider any additional venue for trials by the applicant in the months of June/July, 2023, for the purpose of participating in 3 trials. By order dated 20.05.2023 this Court, allowed Prayer (a) of the application, directing the respondent/federation to include the name of the petitioner in the Long List of Probables which had to be sent to the Federation Equestrian Internationale (FEI) which would serve as a main reference for the Asian Games at Hangzhou, China to be held in September, 2023.

 

 

Issue for consideration before the Court

  1. Whether the petitioner should be allowed to participate in the trials scheduled for 15.06.2023 to 18.06.2023 at Austria, as if the same were his 1st trial for the purposes of eligibility in terms of the email dated 17.04.2023?

 

(ii) Whether the respondent/federation should consider any additional venue for trials for the petitioner in the months of June/July, 2023 to enable the petitioner to compete in 3 trials as per MER?

 

 

Court Analysis and Findings

 

The Court noted that the respondent/federation was the sole authority and the body for conducting all local, regional, national and international equestrian events for the country who was the only decision-making body in all matters of selection of players for participating in national and international equestrian sports. The Bench stated that the respondent/federation was thus amenable to judicial review in terms of the law as settled by the Supreme Court in the case of Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) v. Cricket Association of Bihar.

 

 

The Bench noted that the respondent/federation had not denied the fact that the petitioner was a national champion for the last two years. It was also not disputed that the participation in these events would not automatically guarantee a place in the national team to the petitioner. However unless the petitioner was permitted to participate in the 'trial events' as scheduled in Europe under a foreign coach , the petitioner's name would not be included in the final list of players, as drawn up by the respondent/federation for Team India.

 

 

The Court disagreed with the preliminary objection that had been raised by the respondent/federation that the prayers in the present Application were outside the scope of the Writ Petition. The Bench was of the view that the record reflected that the reliefs as set forth in the present Application had arisen pursuant to the email/communication dated 17.04.2023. The email was one in a series of communications that identified and sets out the FEI mandated CDI Events for participation of the Probables in the ‘trials/events’ scheduled in Europe (Trial Events). The Petition as filed, sought inter-alia, to challenge the email/communication dated 17.04.2023 and since, prayers in the present Application inter-alia emanated from the aforementioned email, all communications sent by the respondent/federation were pursuant to the said email would have to form part of the relief.

 

 

The Bench noted that this Court in its order dated 20.05.2023 had held that, neither paragraph 37 of the Criteria V5, nor the subsequent emails dated 19.03.2023, 15.04.2023 or 17.04.2023 of the respondent/federation set forth any criteria for automatic disqualification or elimination from the Trial Events and no other document had been placed on record by the respondent/federation to show the elimination/disqualification of the petitioner. This Court had thus, by its order dated 20.05.2023, granted interim relief to the petitioner, directing the respondent/federation to include the name of the petitioner in the Long List of Probables to be sent to Hangzhou, China in September, 2023 for Asian Games. The Court therefore held that the contention of the respondent/federation that the petitioner was automatically eliminated was thus, without any legal basis and held no merit.

 

 

The Bench noted that the email dated 19.04.2023, sought to make a distinction between those riders who were already abroad and those riders who were based in India and had already achieved the requisite MER to be a Probable like the petitioner. In view of the above, it was stated that the decision taken by the respondent/federation to then address an email on 15.04.2023 and thereafter on 17.04.2023 requiring all riders to participate in additional (FEI-CDI) Trial Events, prima facie did not appear to have a sound legal basis.

 

 

The Bench navigated through Criteria V3 dated 19.03.2021of the respondent/federation which provided for conduct of trials; Paragraph 11 that stated that to be selected, a minimum of 66% marks were required in at least one selection trial as the MER; a new Criteria V5, was notified by the respondent/federation which held that the results of the best of three competitions in which MERs had been met by the horse- rider combination would be counted towards preparation of the comparative merit for selection of probables; merit list of the probables; Paragraph 33 which provided for training conducted in ‘India or abroad’ as per the availability of budget and other conditions; Clause 34 also provided for the riders and horses selected and to attend the coaching camps at designated locations and under the coaches organised by EFI.

 

 

The Bench after analysing these provisions stated that it showed that there was no prior intimation as contained within these provisions qua the training/Trial Events to be conducted in Europe; and and the training could be done in India or abroad albeit based on budget availability. Further, the condition of compulsory securing of the requisite MER in the 1st Trial being mandatory to participate in the 2nd and 3rd Trial Events also did not appear to form part of Criteria V5 guidelines. The MER for the discipline of Dressage in Criteria V5 Rules was as per paragraph 12 and 13.

 

 

The petitioner had contended that the 3rd Trial MER Rule was already achieved by him during the Trials conducted by the petitioner between 15th August, 2022 and 15th February, 2023, as per the details of score-sheet provided to him by the respondent/federation titled ‘Details of Dressage Selection Trials of Rider Based in India’. Thus, the Bench held that the respondent/federation was imposing onerous and harsh conditions on the petitioner in terms of the email of 17.04.2023.

 

 

The Bench stated that the Court would not go into the realm of selection of athletes/riders for participation in the sporting events, being the domain of the experts. However, the respondent/federation as the national federation for Equestrian sports of the country was required to conduct its administrative actions in a fair and just manner. “It is trite that where arbitrariness or mala fides are alleged or where there is an element of malice, this Court is constrained to exercise its discretion under Article 226 of the Constitution.”

 

 

To support the aforementioned, the Court relied upon State of Punjab v. V.K. Khanna which had decided a petition filed by national rowers qua an event for participation in Junior National Rowers Championship enunciating that the administrative action should be free from malice and beyond reasonable suspicion and had observed that “all sports persons are informed in time and are given due opportunity to participate in the process of selection so as to achieve the object of selecting the best team in the interest of the sport and country.”

 

 

The Court held that it was therefore trite that all sports persons were intimated about all requirements by sports authorities like the respondent/federation in time and give proper opportunities to enable the selection of the best team for the country. “The Respondent/Federation is, however, seen to be not acting in a manner as is fair and reasonable as is elucidated herein. On one hand acknowledges that winning in the discipline of Dressage is completely dependent upon the scores achieved by a horse-rider combination”, to further their contention that it is necessary for all Probables to take part in the same events in Europe. However, in the same breath the Respondent/Federation has failed to acknowledge its responsibility as the national body of Equestrian sports, the best rider-horse combination should be the participants selected for Team India. The Petitioner and his horse ‘Escobar’ will not be able to participate in the Trials Events as scheduled in Europe, which are pre-cursor and pre-qualification for the Asian Games.”

 

 

The Court stated that it was not disputed that the petitioner was currently in Europe and had made all requisite arrangements for himself and for the two horses selected to participate in the events, and had communicated these details to the respondent/federation by an email dated 18.05.2023. The petitioner was, however, not being able to participate in any of the events as scheduled in Europe on account of ‘hurdles’ being unfairly created in this behalf by the respondent/federation. “Given the undisputed fact of the Petitioner being a National Champion in the event of Dressage, unless urgent relief is granted, the Petitioner will not be able to be eligible to participate in the Asian Games to be held in Hangzhou, China in September, 2023.”

 

 

The Bench stated that the petitioner neither had the finances nor the wherewithal to train in Europe, the mode and manner in which the respondent/federation took the aforegoing steps was certainly prejudicial to the petitioner. No prejudice shall, however, be caused to the other Probables who were training in Europe today and had been training there since almost one year.

 

 

While relying on Deoraj v. State of Maharashtra, it was stated that “The Court is sometimes, faced with a situation where withholding grant of an interim relief would amount to dismissal of the main Petition and result in an injustice being perpetuated. In such an event, the Court would be inclined to grant as an interim relief, part or the whole of the final relief. In such cases, the availability of a very strong prima facie case, considerations of balance of convenience and irreparable injury dilating the balance of the case in favour of the Applicant may persuade the Court to grant an interim relief which forms part of a final relief.”

 

The Bench was of the view that the petitioner’s case is one such case.  “Based on the compelling circumstances as have been discussed herein, coupled with irreparable injury which will be caused, if relief is withheld, this Court is of the opinion that an interim relief, as is set forth below, is to be granted to the Petitioner.”

 

In CR-2198-2021(O&M)-PUNJ HC- If landlord rents out shop to someone other than his family members after getting it vacated within 3 years, then evicted tenant has a right to approach Rent Controller for restoration: P&H HC on Sec.13(6) of Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973
Justice H.S. Madaan [01-06-2023]

Read Order:Krishan Lal And Others Vs. Ashok Jain 

 

Tulip Kanth

 

Chandigarh, June 7, 2023: While reiterating that a landlord is the best judge of his requirement, the Punjab and Haryana High Court has dismissed a revision petition of the tenants after noting that the landlord had brought sufficient cogent and convincing evidence to prove that he had a bona fide need for the demised shop and his such need was not just a wish.

 

“ In the present case, the order passed by Rent Controller, Ambala dismissing the rent petition filed by the landlord was obviously wrong and illegal result of inability to understand the factual position properly and to apply law in an appropriate manner”, Justice H.S. Madaan held. 

 

The facts of the case were such that the petitioner/landlord had brought a petition under Section 13 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 against respondent-tenant-firm Krishan Lal and sons seeking ejectment of respondents from the demised Shop.

 

 The petitioner claimed that he required the shop in question for his personal use and occupation. He required the shop in dispute for his son Ankit Jain and Ankit Jain's wife Neha Jain because Ankit Jain was dependent upon the petitioner.

 

Another ground taken by the petitioner seeking ejectment of respondents was that they had created nuisance in the locality and had also encroached some portion and some people quarreled with them. According to the petitioner, he had not vacated any shop after the year 1949 without any reasonable cause and that the respondents were in arrears of rent for the period from January, 2013 onwards, which the respondents had not paid/tendered in spite of repeated requests and demands. The Ambala  Rent Controller had dismissed the petition.

 

The petitioner-landlord had approached the Appellate Authority i.e. District Judge, Ambala by way of filing an appeal, who had accepted the appeal. The respondents/tenants were given two months time from the date of judgment to hand over the vacant possession of the premises under their tenancy to the petitioner/landlord, failing which, the petitioner-landlord would be at liberty to approach the competent executing Court for ejectment of respondents/tenants. Therefore, the respondents/tenants  approached the High Court by way of filing the revision petition. 

 

The Bench opined that if son of the landlord wants to expand his business in the demised shop having direct access to the road, there is nothing wrong in his such plans. He cannot be advised to find some other place for expansion of his business and allow the revision petitioners to keep possession of the shop in dispute.

 

It was observed that since the shop where the son of the landlord is running his business adjoins the demised shop and son of the landlord wants to expand his business, the demised shop has been found to be suitable for that purpose and the revision petitioners - tenants are nobody to advise the landlord that his son should either shift to some other place for his business or get possession of some other shop nearby.

 

Considering the fact that the demised property was being mentioned as shop right from the very beginning, which had been rented out to the father of the revision petitioners several years back where he had been running Halwai business and after his death his sons the revision petitioners are engaged in that avocation, the Bench opined that there was nothing to show that those were constructed for residential purpose and were used as such at any point of time. 


 

The Bench opined that the Rent Controller clearly fell in error in drawing the inference that the petitioner had failed to lead any cogent, clinching and reliable evidence to prove that he required the shop in dispute for his bona fide need, when the landlord had brought sufficient cogent and convincing evidence to prove that he had a bona fide need for the demised shop and his such need was not just a wish. 

 

There was nothing to show that the petition had been filed by the petitioner/landlord with a mala fide intention to enhance the rent or some other extraneous consideration. “Even otherwise under Section 13(6) of Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, if the landlord rent out the shop to some other person after getting it vacated within a period of three years, then the tenant has got a right to approach the Rent Controller for restoration. Therefore, the Legislature has provided a proper safeguard against ejectments for extraneous reasons”, the Bench held.

 

Noting that the revisional jurisdiction of the Court is quite limited, the Bench dismissed the revision petition.

 

In C.A. (COMM.IPD-TM) 8 of 2023- DEL HC- Trademarks Act - Registrar erred in dissecting the subject mark into its individual parts while considering registration: Delhi High Court allows appeal of petitioner challenging refusal of the registration of device mark CruzOil in class 04
Justice Amit Bansal [30-05–2023]

Read Order: Navaid Khan v Registrar of Trademarks Office

 

 

Simran Singh

 

 

New Delhi, June 7, 2023: The Delhi High Court has allowed the appeal under Section 91 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 (TM Act) wherein the appellant challenged the refusal of the registration of the appellant’s device mark ‘CruzOil’ (subject mark) in class 04 contending that the subject mark, when considered as a whole, had no dictionary meaning nor was it used in common parlance.

 

 

The registration of the subject mark was rejected on the ground that the mark consisted exclusively of words that may serve in the trade to designate the intended purpose of the goods. The Bench however, was of the view that the mark having a combination of words and devices had to be considered as a whole for the purposes of grant of registration.

 

 

The subject mark was a device mark which consisted of various unique and arbitrary elements, such as a tagline ‘Lifeline for Engines’, yellow background with two purple rings, unique pattern of semi circles with images of 4 stars on alternative sides with a pattern of slanting parallel lines and held that Registrar erred in dissecting the subject mark into its individual parts while considering registration.

 

 

The appellant impugned the order dated 12-01-2023 passed by the Registrar of Trade Marks, refusing the registration of the subject mar in class 04 stating that “The mark applied for registration is objectionable under S 9(1)(b) of the Trade Marks Act 1999, as it consists of which may serve in trade to designate the kind, intended purpose of the goods or other characteristics of the goods. The applied mark is highly descriptive as it designate the kind and intended purpose of the goods applied for registration. It clearly indicates that the oil is used in Cruz or for Cruz. It is the name of the product. It is not coined nor invented. It cannot be monopolized.”

 

 

It was the case of the appellant that he had filed an application for registration of the subject mark in class 04 of which the examination report was issued by the Registrar of Trade Marks raising objection under Section 9(1)(b) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 on the ground that the mark consisted exclusively of words that may serve in the trade to designate the intended purpose of the goods. However, the appellant replied to the objection stating that the subject mark, when considered as a whole, had no dictionary meaning nor was it used in common parlance. Pursuant to the representation filed by the appellant, a hearing was conducted subsequent to which the impugned order dated 12-01-2023 was passed refusing the application of the appellant.

 

 

The Bench noted that the appellant had applied for registration of a composite device mark, which contained the word ‘CruzOil’, along with other elements. However, the impugned order proceeds on the basis that the subject mark was a word mark, ‘CruzOil’ and therefore, treats it as such.

 

 

The Bench navigated through Section 9(1)(b) of the TM Act and the judgment of the co-ordinate Bench of this Court in Abu Dhabi Global Market v. The Registrar of Trademarks, Delhi who had interpreted Section 9(1)(b) of the TM Act in respect of composite marks. Thus, held that the Registrar erred in dissecting the subject mark into its individual parts while considering registration.

“It is relevant to note here that there were other composite marks containing the word Cruzthat have been registered under Class 04, details of which are given in paragraph 15 of the Memorandum of Appeal. It is also relevant to note that the appellant has given a disclaimer with regard to exclusive right to use the word Oil’.”

 

 

In view thereof, the appeal was allowed and the impugned order was set aside. The Bench had further directed the Trade Marks Registry to proceed with the advertisement of the application as per the proviso to Section 20 of the TM Act.